Apologies if the title is a bit vague. But say that in 1490, it is Philipp of Austria, Duke of Burgundy, who weds Anne, Duchess of Brittany. While in 1492 (the date of his OTL annulment from Anne) or 1494 (the date of his OTL wedding to Bianca, Max marries Juana of Castile?
Obviously, in this scenario Charles VIII is married to Margarethe of Austria. I imagine that with Philipp not being bogged down in Hungary (like his dad) he might actually be able to do something about preventing Anne's forced marriage, or perhaps enforce the marriage between Charles VIII-Margarethe.
As to why Fernando and Isabel offer Juana to the emperor, Spain-Naples and the Empire have converging interests in Italy, as well as a mutual interest in controlling France (should Charles not wed Margarethe).
Thoughts?
Obviously, in this scenario Charles VIII is married to Margarethe of Austria. I imagine that with Philipp not being bogged down in Hungary (like his dad) he might actually be able to do something about preventing Anne's forced marriage, or perhaps enforce the marriage between Charles VIII-Margarethe.
As to why Fernando and Isabel offer Juana to the emperor, Spain-Naples and the Empire have converging interests in Italy, as well as a mutual interest in controlling France (should Charles not wed Margarethe).
Thoughts?