IOTL, the Austro-Hungarian Monarchy signed armistice with the Entente on the 3rd of November 1918 in Villa Giusti, Padua, which put an end to its participation in the conflict on the next day. Despite this, the commander of the Entente forces in Serbia, General Franchet d'Esperey continued his operations against the Austro-Hungarian forces in the region until the 12th. Pressured by the French general, the Hungarian government sent delegates to Belgrade and a new armistice was signed on the 13th, which forced the Hungarians to evacuate all areas South to the Drava–Mecsek–Szeged–Maros line. By this time the Romanians reentered the war too, and gained the right to occupy the areas behind the demarcation as Entente forces.
What if instead of giving in to d'Esperey, the Hungarian government directly approaches the British and French governments and manage to convince them to force d'Esperey to respect the armistice? All this would happen prior to the Romanian reentry to the war.
What do you think?
What if instead of giving in to d'Esperey, the Hungarian government directly approaches the British and French governments and manage to convince them to force d'Esperey to respect the armistice? All this would happen prior to the Romanian reentry to the war.
What do you think?
Must have misread the title.