Thinking about the infamous three-fifths compromise in the original United States Constitution, something occurred to me - women across the US didn’t legally have the right to vote until the passing of the Nineteenth Amendment (though even then it was restricted on a state-by-state basis for a while), just like how Black people and other racial minorities didn’t officially get the right to vote until the Fifteenth Amendment (though obviously it took much longer for Black people to actually be able to vote what with Jim Crow and literacy tests and the grandfather clause and White-supremacist intimidation and whatnot). Before the Fifteenth Amendment, enslaved people were legally considered three-fifths of a person when counting population to determine seating in the House of Representatives, which was primarily because the South wanted to have as large of as an advantage as possible in the House and the North didn’t want the South using people that were legally considered property to get that advantage; the main Northern argument against slaves counting as people for House purposes was that they were legally property, noncitizens, and crucially, didn’t have voting rights. Since women didn’t have universally legally recognized voting rights until much later on in American history, similar to the slaves whose lack of said rights was a major factor in their being legally considered a fraction of a person, does anyone know how women, whether free or enslaved, were counted towards the population when determining seats, whether as full people, a fraction of a person, or not at all?