I've been reading a bunch of the old threads about the Munich Agreement falling through and a shooting war erupting over Czechoslovakia in October 1938, with the conclusion always being: Germany gets a bloody nose, eventually beats CZE, eventually battles France somehow and gets smashed. With some mention of a coup against Hitler thrown in.
However, in an ATL where the war happens over CZE, I imagine that *AH.com would have threads "what if the Munich Pact happened and war broke out in 1939 over Poland. Which would go something like: Poland hurts Germany but eventually dies, then Germany moves against France and gets its face smashed up. Because the Allies knew about the Schlieffen trick. Also replace "coup against Hitler" with "Red Army jumps on Hitler".
Both of these scenarios are very similar, and an AH.commer of the ATL would dismiss the OTL outcome (insert calls of ASB), although we can see that there was a small-% chance of it actually happening. So I'm going to reframe the usual Fall Grun question slightly: is Germany's position in 1938 really that much worse than the Allies compared to their relative positions in 1939? That being, if Germany was just as lucky as it was IOTL, could it beat France?
Furthermore, could it achieve a negotiated peace afterwards (say, Germany keeps Austria and Bohemia, else status quo ante bellum).
Why do I say this? Those other threads make a lot of mention of Pz38s and other stuff being necessary to beat Poland and France, but they couldn't kill a French heavy or a Matilda any better than a Pz2 could, and is there any reason why a war in 1938 wouldn't see an earlier model Pz3 pushed into production earlier to make up some of the shortfall? AFAIK the LW was also in a better relative position to the French air force in 1938 compared to 1939.
Assume the following:
USSR either doesn't intervene on the ground, or if they do they are attacking Poland, and Poland doesn't contribute anywhere else to the Axis war efforts. (Until at least 1941 USSR won't be powerful enough to roll over Poland, much less Germany)
Similar as above with Hungary and Romania: either they are neutral or counter each other exactly (neither is really strong enough to crush the other).
France doesn't flood Spain with help - the SCW is ongoing and it is fine if Franco DOWs France, but no major changes to the Spanish theatre from OTL 1938 (although the Republicans are allowed to fight on for a bit longer).
The 1938 coup against Hitler fails. We know how good the bastard was at avoiding assassinations. If he is booted out as a requirement for a negotiated peace in ~1940, that is fine.
Also, is the UK remaining neutral necessary for Germany not to just get sat on? Or Italy joining?
- BNC
However, in an ATL where the war happens over CZE, I imagine that *AH.com would have threads "what if the Munich Pact happened and war broke out in 1939 over Poland. Which would go something like: Poland hurts Germany but eventually dies, then Germany moves against France and gets its face smashed up. Because the Allies knew about the Schlieffen trick. Also replace "coup against Hitler" with "Red Army jumps on Hitler".
Both of these scenarios are very similar, and an AH.commer of the ATL would dismiss the OTL outcome (insert calls of ASB), although we can see that there was a small-% chance of it actually happening. So I'm going to reframe the usual Fall Grun question slightly: is Germany's position in 1938 really that much worse than the Allies compared to their relative positions in 1939? That being, if Germany was just as lucky as it was IOTL, could it beat France?
Furthermore, could it achieve a negotiated peace afterwards (say, Germany keeps Austria and Bohemia, else status quo ante bellum).
Why do I say this? Those other threads make a lot of mention of Pz38s and other stuff being necessary to beat Poland and France, but they couldn't kill a French heavy or a Matilda any better than a Pz2 could, and is there any reason why a war in 1938 wouldn't see an earlier model Pz3 pushed into production earlier to make up some of the shortfall? AFAIK the LW was also in a better relative position to the French air force in 1938 compared to 1939.
Assume the following:
USSR either doesn't intervene on the ground, or if they do they are attacking Poland, and Poland doesn't contribute anywhere else to the Axis war efforts. (Until at least 1941 USSR won't be powerful enough to roll over Poland, much less Germany)
Similar as above with Hungary and Romania: either they are neutral or counter each other exactly (neither is really strong enough to crush the other).
France doesn't flood Spain with help - the SCW is ongoing and it is fine if Franco DOWs France, but no major changes to the Spanish theatre from OTL 1938 (although the Republicans are allowed to fight on for a bit longer).
The 1938 coup against Hitler fails. We know how good the bastard was at avoiding assassinations. If he is booted out as a requirement for a negotiated peace in ~1940, that is fine.
Also, is the UK remaining neutral necessary for Germany not to just get sat on? Or Italy joining?
- BNC