Which explains the Berlin airlift...
Yes, actually. The Berlin airlift was initially a chaotic and wholly inadequate affair. It took serious reorganization and a focused, minor mobilization to get it working as well as it eventually did. Even then, it absorbed practically all operational airlift assets. The US senior commanders from the theatre level all the way up to the JCS complained bitterly throughout the entire thing that the aforementioned commitment of practically all air cargo assets compromised plans to help ensure the reinforcement of Britain and Japan in the early stages of a war against the USSR.
Sounds as if you've moved it to Scotland.
My keyboard doesn’t do the umlaut, but apparently I misspelled the name: the relevant airbase was called Gutersloh and in 1948 it only had 4 fighters squadrons in 1948: 1 jet, 3 piston-engine. Another airbase, Wunstorf, had another squadron of RAF piston-engine fighters. The Dutch and Belgian air forces combined had another 3 piston-engine fighters. As I already mentioned, the USAFE had one air group of three squadrons of Thunderbolts left over from WW2.
USAF history in Korea. Let history be a guide as to whether the Russians would have gone anywhere in the face of Western tac-air. From the operational history of force on force encounters in Korea and what we know now; it appears that the answer would be that the Russians did not have the proper training, doctrine, base ground support echelon, aircraft or stomach for it.
First link is based on USAF history on kill claims which aren't worth spit (to be fair, neither are Russian claims about the number of US aircraft they downed... overclaiming in this matter is pretty universal). Genuinely independent historical studies based on opened archives since the end of the Cold War show that the Russians did quite well in Korea, scoring a close to 1:1 kill ratio, and also observed they effectively managed to shut down B-29 raids up in the region they were operating (the famous "MiG alley") during the course of the war. Second link does not support the claim in any sort of way.
The break of gauge question gives serious pause to anyone thinking about the "Soviet hordes swarming into Western Europe". Those hordes would be limited to what already is deployed forward into the Iron Curtain border countries. Second echelons etc advancing would be significantly late, and the border crossings would very likely be showered in conventional or nuclear bombs... The fact that the railways from in the Warsaw Pact satellite countries were never adjusted to match the Soviet gauge should be taken as evidence that the USSR never seriously entertained aggressive intentions, and was on the contrary deeply paranoid about undergoing yet another unprovoked attack.
I find this far more wishful thinking then anything else. The Soviets had to deal with the gauge chain in 1945 and yet they shipped record number of supplies across by simply using the large quantities of captured Eastern European rolling stock. They also had little problem going the other way, when shipping east those forces they decided to demobilize along with large amounts of surplus gear and looted industrial equipment. Why they can't repeat the performance again in 1948 despite the railnet being more rebuilt and additional rolling stock being acquired and with large quantities of supplies already stockpiled up in East Germany and forces within Eastern Germany and Eastern Europe which already grossly overmatch their western opposition... nobody here seems able to address. I've already discussed at length about the inadequacy of the USAF to deliver either atomic or conventional munitions in the face of Soviet air support in the first stage of such a war in both this thread and others and this is confirmed by Korea where American air interdiction comprehensively failed to sever North Korea's rail lines despite them being much easier targets in every way (fewer of them, against a enemy less adept at maskirovka, and with vastly less in the way of fighter cover and AAA). Communist supply throughput actually increased during the war, with artillery ammunition reaching the frontlines in July 1953 at 22 times the rate it did in August 1951. All this makes it pretty clear that people who wax lyrically about pure airpower severing Soviet LOCs in the first several months of a Western-Soviet war in 1948 seem to be engaging in total fantasy.
I would like to note that I too disagree with the idea of "Soviet hordes swaming into Western Europe". But then that is because the Soviets because the specific idea of the Soviets being "hordes" is also a product of sub-human othering which reduces the idea of Soviet ground superiority to just being that of pure quantity with zero quality. In reality, the Soviet armies also had the quality advantage in the 1946-1950 timeframe and their overrunning of Western Europe would be as much the product of ruthless application of maneuver, firepower, and skill as it would be of numbers.
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