Let's say Louis the Pious lives longer and the Carolingian empire stays united until at least the 1600s, with territory including modern France, Lombardy, and Catalonia at the very least.
Would this prevent French, Italian, Occitan, and Catalan from diverging? I've seen it written that 11th century Oïl, Oc, and Si languages were much more intelligible than today, with mostly vocabulary differences dividing them (with even these being very localised, differing even between towns/cities). Would a single realm be enough to pin down the language to a single standard, or would/could they still diverge?
Would someone need to drastically centralise the state as France did historically (this did not exactly help France assimilate Occitan or Provençal) or would a loose amalgamation be enough to later standardise through the printing press (like the HRE with Luther's standard German)?
Also: what would the administrative language of Carolingia be? Would it be much closer to Ecclesiastical Latin, or still develop like French?
Would this prevent French, Italian, Occitan, and Catalan from diverging? I've seen it written that 11th century Oïl, Oc, and Si languages were much more intelligible than today, with mostly vocabulary differences dividing them (with even these being very localised, differing even between towns/cities). Would a single realm be enough to pin down the language to a single standard, or would/could they still diverge?
Would someone need to drastically centralise the state as France did historically (this did not exactly help France assimilate Occitan or Provençal) or would a loose amalgamation be enough to later standardise through the printing press (like the HRE with Luther's standard German)?
Also: what would the administrative language of Carolingia be? Would it be much closer to Ecclesiastical Latin, or still develop like French?