WI Wallies Stalingrad

How did Britain afford 744,000 combat deaths in WWI, then? It suffered twice the WWII losses with a somewhat lower population...

I feel I should point out that WWI came before WW2. Without meaning to be facetious, it's possible you're underestimating the effect WWI had on Britain's ability to suffer losses on the same scale. WWI killed an awful lot of military-age men (and awful lot of boys who were considerably under military-age, too). There were communities where that entire demographic slice ceased to exist - there were children, and there were old men, but no males in between - and even where it wasn't wiped out it still took a significant dent. More importantly, large parts of that generation were either unable or unwilling to have children, which meant that about the time WWII was kicking off the proportion of military-age men may have been smaller, despite the larger overall population. In short, don't ignore the demographic aspects of those WWI casualties!

A related issue is that Britain may have had rather less willingness to suffer the same level of slaughter than they did in 1914. Don't forget that in 1917 most of the combatants were on the ropes in terms of manpower and economy - it was only the prospect of fresh American armies which ensured the Entente victory the next year. A generation later, none of the combatants wanted to suffer similar casualties and have another generation of young men wiped out. All of them pursued different means to that goal, with varying degrees of success, so it's also important not to underestimate the psychological effect WWI had!
 
How did Britain afford 744,000 combat deaths in WWI, then? It suffered twice the WWII losses with a somewhat lower population, and still maintained a huge army in the trenches (over 80 divisions!), navy crews which were as numerous as in WWII, and an industrial workforce of a similar size (while the RAF was much smaller in WWI than in WWII, it could not offset much greater manpower requirements of the WWI-era British Army). Was there any talk of the British Army being a wasting asset in 1918 (or 1917, for that matter, when their accumulated casualties were already much higher than the WWII ones)?

Short answer, it couldn't, but it had to.

If the US hadn't entered the War in WWI or had blundered spectacularly and left, then Britain and France would have had to sue for peace. The Spring Offensive was a gamble, but it was a pretty darn good one except for the fact that the other side had fresh (if green) troops and supplies. Unlike the Battle of the Bulge, it was a real possibility Britain and France throw in the towel even WITH the US in Europe simply due to exhaustion of resources.

In WWII, the problem was that the scything of young men that was WWI had already reduced the population and talent pool for WWII. Doing that a second time meant there was nothing left. Even IOTL, Britain went from being the world's #1 or #2 power (with Germany) to being a poorly aging lion to being on a ventilator all in the span of 31 years. If the US had gotten into WWIII anytime in the following 20 years or so, it would have been similarly gutted.
 
I feel I should point out that WWI came before WW2. Without meaning to be facetious, it's possible you're underestimating the effect WWI had on Britain's ability to suffer losses on the same scale. WWI killed an awful lot of military-age men (and awful lot of boys who were considerably under military-age, too). There were communities where that entire demographic slice ceased to exist - there were children, and there were old men, but no males in between - and even where it wasn't wiped out it still took a significant dent. More importantly, large parts of that generation were either unable or unwilling to have children, which meant that about the time WWII was kicking off the proportion of military-age men may have been smaller, despite the larger overall population. In short, don't ignore the demographic aspects of those WWI casualties!
Thanks for reminding me of it, I agree that growing population totals can mask significant decreases in specific groups, and I should have taken this into account. However, most military-age men of 1942 were actually born pre-WWI, and annual births in the early 20th century (until 1915) were as numerous as in the late 19th century (when most WWI soldiers were born). (The birth rate was lower in the early 20th century than in the late 19th, but the accumulated population was higher, so the annual births were more or less unchanged, see the figures here and here). The birth rate fell precipitously in 1915-1918, and then recovered with a post-war baby boom in the early 1920s. All in all, the British manpower reserves were probably almost as large in 1942 as they were in 1915.

Also, compared to the WWII-era USSR or Germany, the British manpower was not actually really depleted even in WWI - Britain had some 9 million military-age men in 1914 and lost 'only' 744,000 of them as KIA, while a similar number were more or less permanently disabled, still leaving over 7 million (almost four fifths of the pre-war total) available. By way of comparison, the USSR lost over 11 million of its 38 million military-age men as KIA or POWs who died in the Axis captivity (assuming that a similar number were left disabled, this means that the Soviets had less than half of its pre-war military-age men left for drafting in 1945), and Greater Germany with its 18 million military-age men lost 4.3 (or even 5.3, depending on the source used) million as KIA and dead in captivity (again, assuming a similar number getting disabled, we get almost a half or much more than a half of pre-WWII German military-age men unavailable for service after 1945).
A generation later, none of the combatants wanted to suffer similar casualties and have another generation of young men wiped out. All of them pursued different means to that goal, with varying degrees of success, so it's also important not to underestimate the psychological effect WWI had!
While I agree that the psychological effect you mention was important, we shouldn't forget that Germany and the USSR managed to absorb much higher absolute and relative losses in WWII than any combatant in WWI, and it did not prevent both nations from recovering and going forward post-1945 to become an economic powerhouse and the world's second superpower, respectively.
In WWII, the problem was that the scything of young men that was WWI had already reduced the population and talent pool for WWII. Doing that a second time meant there was nothing left. Even IOTL, Britain went from being the world's #1 or #2 power (with Germany) to being a poorly aging lion to being on a ventilator all in the span of 31 years. If the US had gotten into WWIII anytime in the following 20 years or so, it would have been similarly gutted.
Again, Germany and the USSR were gutted by WWII (and their own governments' murderous policies in the 1930s and 1940s) much worse than the UK by both World Wars combined, and they still had a lot of manpower left for their ascent in the 1940s to 1970s. Of course, both Germany and (especially) the USSR were much larger population-wise than Britain, and this explains the British relative decline far better, I would think. It is not that Britain was especially badly gutted by the World Wars, it's just that it was not big enough to begin with, and it could only maintain its world leadership as long as its rivals were under-developed and it had its Empire to rely on. After Germany equaled Britain in economic development and the USSR closed the gap greatly, while the Empire ceased to exist, Britain's days as a world power were over, almost regardless of its war losses.
 
After Germany equaled Britain in economic development and the USSR closed the gap greatly, while the Empire ceased to exist, Britain's days as a world power were over, almost regardless of its war losses.

I think this is an important point. It really highlights just how much sheer potential Russia/Soviet Union had at the start of the Century that it'd go through the kinds of bloodbaths it did and still be the world's #2 power (and #1 in some areas) for over 40 years.
 

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Greater Germany with its 18 million military-age men lost 4.3 (or even 5.3, depending on the source used) million as KIA and dead in captivity (again, assuming a similar number getting disabled, we get almost a half or much more than a half of pre-WWII German military-age men unavailable for service after 1945).
Sorry for the nitpick, but out of German losses, a significant portion weren't even German, rather foreign recruits that were in German service, mostly Soviet citizens, but also ethnic Germans from outside of Germany. Also post-1945 nearly all the ethnic Germans outside of 'greater Germany' were dumped into Germany, which prevented the population within the 1937 borders from declining post-war. So German manpower losses are really difficult to actually figure out, though they were incomparably higher than the British losses during the war; the Brits had a ton of slack in terms of losses they could sustain in WW2 especially given the huge colonial populations.

While I agree that the psychological effect you mention was important, we shouldn't forget that Germany and the USSR managed to absorb much higher absolute and relative losses in WWII than any combatant in WWI, and it did not prevent both nations from recovering and going forward post-1945 to become an economic powerhouse and the world's second superpower, respectively.
Again nitpick, but Britain's position actually collapsed economically and geopolitically after WW2 despite it's low relative losses, while the USSR never recovered it's pre-WW2 trajectory and if anything was suffering a long slow decline as a result of it's newly acquired empire/buffer zone and resulting military commitments. It's status as 2nd 'world power' was largely overstated post-WW2 and only somewhat possible due to crippling military spending, especially after the ravages of WW2.
https://nintil.com/2016/03/26/the-soviet-union-gdp-growth/

Germany's position after WW2 was largely the result of being the frontline of the Cold War in Europe and benefitted massively from the enormous US and NATO military spending within the country, as well as the importing of men from other countries, specifically Turkey, to make up for the workforce deficits, as well as the end of the various imperial systems so that they could trade globally for the first time and benefit from their reputation as a non-colonial power (as they had lost their meager empire generations previously and were occupied by greater powers).

Britain in contrast suffered from having to base an army in Germany and pay for it (British army of the Rhine), trying to maintain it's collapsing empire, having to compete economically on the global market without imperial protection with grossly inefficient industries in a financial system structured for and to the benefit of the US, and facing a Europe split in half and dominated by an economic system that cut them off from a large part of their pre-war trade base and so forth.

I think this is an important point. It really highlights just how much sheer potential Russia/Soviet Union had at the start of the Century that it'd go through the kinds of bloodbaths it did and still be the world's #2 power (and #1 in some areas) for over 40 years.
It's highly debatable what it's actual potential was. Certainly though after WW2 it was never really a competitor to the US outside of the military, which was only sustained by crippling military outlays. If not for it's massive natural resources it probably would have collapsed much sooner.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Economy_of_the_Soviet_Union#1970–1990
Graph_of_Soviet_National_Income_Growth.png
 
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