So WI after Mary marries Philip, she gets pregnant and gives birth to a healthy boy. How does Europe react. What do the english nobility do? Could we see a union between england and Spain or a succestion war? THoughts?
Yes, Philip does indeed have another son, but remember that Don Carlos died at 23 in 1568. If this isn't butterflied away, the son of Philip and Mary would technically be the heir of all their possessions. Of course, I doubt Philip would want such a thing. After Mary's death, he would probably remarry to have another son and split his possessions. The only question that comes to my mind: What of the Netherlands in such a partition? England would be able to defend them better than Spain.Evan said:What's more, Philip already had a son Charles by a previous marriage; the treaty specified Charles would inherit the crowns of all the Spanish realms but not England.
Source for England getting the Low Countries? The treaty seems to say otherwise (though it's somewhat dense; I might've missed something). Calais was actually lost during Mary's reign when she was fighting by Philip's side against France, so I don't see how that'd change here.Mary and Philip's child would inherit England and the Low Countries, making England a ridiculously more powerful player in European players. Calais almost certainly wouldn't be lost.
What happens when Don Carlos dies? I'm guessing Philip and Mary's child becomes heir to all of Philip's domains.
Great point... According to the treaty, he would. That might change, of course.Yes, Philip does indeed have another son, but remember that Don Carlos died at 23 in 1568. If this isn't butterflied away, the son of Philip and Mary would technically be the heir of all their possessions.
Source for England getting the Low Countries? The treaty seems to say otherwise (though it's somewhat dense; I might've missed something). Calais was actually lost during Mary's reign when she was fighting by Philip's side against France, so I don't see how that'd change here.
Thanks Gonzaga! Great treaty, interesting the limitation on who a female heir could marry.
I guess that will depend on Mary Stuart's relationship with her cousin Mary Tudor. However, Mary Stuart could also see asking for English help as a way to undermine Scotland's independance and keep the Auld Alliance with France. Then again, let's not forget that her Uncles are of the House of Guise, who supported the Hapsburg against the Reformation...Gonzaga said:Just an idea: let's assume that Mary and Philip have a child because the Queen has a better health, and she lives at least as long as her mother (so we are giving her 8 or 10 more years than IOTL), giving her enough time to impose her policies and raise her child. So, during the late 1550's and and the 1560's we have an England that is Catholic, pro-Spanish and with a Habsburg heir that probably won't change that.
Now, assuming that things go more or less the same for Mary Queen of Scots - her young husband die and she leaves France for Scotland, finding a kingdom that is becoming more and more a stronghold of Calvinism - what would be the consequences there? Would Mary Stuart turn to England in order to have support from her Mary Tudor and Philip of Spain against the Protestants that oppose her rule, and so probably cutting the alliance with France? Or such situation could force the Scottish queen to instead rely more on the Protestants?
I guess that will depend on Mary Stuart's relationship with her cousin Mary Tudor. However, Mary Stuart could also see asking for English help as a way to undermine Scotland's independance and keep the Auld Alliance with France. Then again, let's not forget that her Uncles are of the House of Guise, who supported the Hapsburg against the Reformation...
I think it was written this way to avoid any possibility that such female heir could marry a French. After all, a France that has the Burgundian inheritance and England would make the Habsburgs suffer collective heart attacks.
Mary Stuart might be as troublesome as she was OTL, but ITTL England would be far more receptive towards her. Certainly Philip would be wanting to scoop her up and make sure she marries pro-Habsburg. Depending on when Mary and François die, maybe even Philip II and Mary Stuart end up together - he sees in her an opportunity to secure another kingdom, separate another ally from France, a young Catholic bride to produce heirs, and she sees in him a means of securing her position in the English succession and European politics.
An Anglo-Spanish union under a Habsburg monarch... keep in mind that this child would also inherit the Portuguese throne as well. So, if they had a son, and he inherited all of both his parents' territories, you'd have...
X, King of England, France, Ireland, Spain, Portugal, both Sicilies, and Jerusalem
As per the English claim on the French throne and Philip's claim on the Kingdom of Jerusalem. I wonder if this Anglo-Spanish Habsburg monarch would feel the need to exercise his claim on the French throne, perhaps using the Huguenots as a good excuse... Would the HRE be likely to elect this monarch Emperor? How would the union of the Portuguese and Spanish colonial empires with English resources have effected the history of New World colonization?