Thank you very much
Some of you may remember in Portuguese America update (posted more than 5 years ago
), only 5,000 Portuguese settled in Brazil from 1500-1530 (with 7,500 heading eastward instead), and 35,000 migrated to Brazil from 1535-1600. To give you an idea of what this means for TTL's Brazil, let's look at the numbers. Following the OTL growth rate of Brazil's population - from 15,000 to 100,000 in 50 years (1550-1600) - which is about 4% (which obviously accounts for immigration), I'm estimating the Brazilian population ITTL to be about 64,000 by 1600, so considerably lower than IOTL. I have also seen other sources estimating OTL's Brazilian population numbered as low as 45,000 in 1600. Since the OTL Brazilian population tripled from 1600 to 1700 (from 100,000 to 300,000), I can't see TTL's Brazilian population being higher than around 192,000 in 1700. This puts TTL's Brazilian population between Guatemala and Cuba, and is almost negligent compared to the OTL population of New Spain in 1700, numbering 4.5 million.
The treaty of Tordesillas/Toredsilhas intended to hand the Americas to the Castilians and Africa+Asia to the Portuguese, so - given that the PoD of Miguel da Paz's survival and the consequent inevitability of an Iberian Union happened before the discovery of Brazil - the presence of Brazil on Portugal's side of the meridian is seen as more of a weird coincidence ITTL, as opposed to being treated as an opportune loophole IOTL. IMO, Iberian colonization of Brazil is basically unavoidable during the 16th century - even against foreign intervention. Due to the obvious pathway along the West African coast leading to the easy route provided by the equatorial currents, the Iberians really can't even avoid discovering Brazil, and pressing claims there comes naturally due to its brazilwood, its ideal sugar plantation biomes, and its geography offering a promontory by which to command the South Atlantic.
However, the Portuguese in this century aren't caught up on notions of romantic nationalism (yet) and preserving the Portuguese language and culture through some settler colonialism in the Americas or Oceania. What they are concerned about (or at least what the Portuguese elite and middle class are concerned about) is keeping their monopoly over the African and Asian trade, so Africa and Asia have a stronger pull on Portuguese immigration ITTL than Brazil does (precisely because of Brazil's lack of development and the ignorance of precious minerals there at the moment, as
@A_simple_pilgrim noted). Spanish North Africa is also another obvious destination for Portuguese immigration, due to the (rapidly disappearing) Portuguese monopoly there and (just as importantly) the short and considerably less dangerous travel distance to get there compared to South America or elsewhere. The Castilian colonies - while also legally a Castilian monopoly - are of course part of the same dynastic union as Portugal and consequently are going to receive a lot of Portuguese immigrants, which is something that actually occurred in surprising numbers IOTL when Castile and Portugal were separate (I've read that as many as 100,000 Portuguese found their way to Spanish America during the 16th century IOTL). I'm not saying Portuguese patriotism or distrust of the Castilians aren't both potent factors during this period, but most - or at least a plurality - of the Portuguese in the 16th century simply aren't that concerned about their culture and the other distinct cultures of the Iberian Peninsula peacefully dissolving and coalescing over centuries into some greater High Spanish culture. Or they at least feel like such a development is out of their hands.