In one of my random musing recently, I was questioning whether or not a "successful" nation must undergo its own version of a "Vietnam" in order to either stay "successful" or have its level of "success" increase?
When I was thinking about this, I realized that there were about 50,000 plus Americans who might repute Vietnam being a "success" for the United States. But, I think if you look at where the U.S. and its standing around the world is today, I think you could make the case that it has been "successful." So is this "success" due to its involvement in Vietnam or in spite of it?
Next, I tried to look at what other "successful" nations "Vietnams" might have been. For instance, would England's be the India Mutiny or the Boer Wars? The Seven Years War for Napoleonic France? The Winter War for the Soviet Union?
Finally, in keeping with the alternative history theme of this site, would these nations have been as ultimately "successful" without their own "Vietnam" analogies? Without their "Vietnams," how would they have developed alternatively?
When I was thinking about this, I realized that there were about 50,000 plus Americans who might repute Vietnam being a "success" for the United States. But, I think if you look at where the U.S. and its standing around the world is today, I think you could make the case that it has been "successful." So is this "success" due to its involvement in Vietnam or in spite of it?
Next, I tried to look at what other "successful" nations "Vietnams" might have been. For instance, would England's be the India Mutiny or the Boer Wars? The Seven Years War for Napoleonic France? The Winter War for the Soviet Union?
Finally, in keeping with the alternative history theme of this site, would these nations have been as ultimately "successful" without their own "Vietnam" analogies? Without their "Vietnams," how would they have developed alternatively?