Dunnoh if this is entirely within the purview of this forum, since this is OTL history and AH (mods, please delete this if this violates any rules, though I tried to check if it does before posting this and i don’t think it does). But I got into an online argument with someone who claims that Japan’s attack on Pearl Harbor was partially provoked by US actions such as the embargoes, lend-lease to China, re-armament, and stationing the Pacific fleet in Pearl Harbor. I argued that those acts can’t be seen as provocations against Japan because Japan’s aggression against its neighbors made at least some international response inevitable and the Japanese were aware of that in advance, that some of those actions can’t even be seen as provocation anyway (such as re-armament), and anyway that the main reason for Japan’s attack was to seize Indonesia and Malaysia, not pre-emptive strike against the US. She claimed that the US was not neutral as they were arming the Chinese and thus not innocent in this, and I claimed that this doesn’t in any way justify the Japanese to attack the US and that anyway it wasn’t even the main reason for Pearl Harbor and therefore moot. The argument soon became very nasty (on both sides admittedly) so no further progress could be achieved.
Do you think it’s reasonable to say that the US provoked Japan by embargo, lend-lease, moving the fleet to Hawaii etc. and therefore Japan was partially justified? Or would you agree that those shouldn’t count as provocations?
Do you think it’s reasonable to say that the US provoked Japan by embargo, lend-lease, moving the fleet to Hawaii etc. and therefore Japan was partially justified? Or would you agree that those shouldn’t count as provocations?