Better idea: what if the Chinese cultivated their own opium within China? Thus, the addicted would have a cheap alternative to Indian/British opium and Britain would again have to pay in cash for Chinese goods.
A paper here
http://www.lse.ac.uk/economicHistory/workingPapers/2013/WP173.pdf has the conclusions (simplified) that the pre-Opium War trade was driven by trade of trusted Spanish American silver coin to China "since China did not coin silver". Read on page 26-27.
That is, Spanish American silver coin (peso) had a relatively higher price compared to unminted silver in China than in the West. Chinese merchants could only resolve that price differential through coin imports and goods and raw silver exports, as they couldn't just take their silver to the mint.
After developments in Spanish American (revolutions), the same coin ceases to be minted in quantity and reliable quality. The opportunities for arbitrage of Spanish American coin for Chinese goods and silver decrease and opium arises as an export substitute that suits (imperfectly) what Western and Chinese merchants were using silver coin for.
Following this, assuming no opium imports to China, what could happen is that Chinese exports just become uncompetitive in world markets faster (more expensive relative to silver coin imports), and decline in market share faster. Or, they adapt and become more competitive in world markets on price (and they may need technical innovation to do this). You may not have anything like "Oh, Western nations continue to import the same volumes of Chinese goods, but pay in silver coin" (as there isn't the silver coin at the right price level to do it)