To my understanding, The initial wave of Japanese planes constituted roughly half of the carrier striking force as Yamamoto wanted half kept back in case of the appearance of the US carriers. Would the inclusion of the other half as part of the first strike put Midway out of commission and therefore not require a 2nd strike on Midway? If so then there is no back and forth between torpedoes and bombs, with the remaining half and would that mean the Japanese carrier force is actually in a better position to counter US carriers than in OTL. No planes and bombs all over to cause secondary explosions, time saved etc