The United States is home to distinctive varieties of French, German, and Spanish spoken nowhere else in the world. In the past, a distinctive variety of Dutch was also spoken in the country. But why, in the nineteenth century or before, didn't a distinct variety of American Italian develop? It's not for lack of Italian pockets in the Thirteen Colonies and early United States. If the lack of Italian unification was the issue, how/why did a distinctive German variety develop (actually not less than two in what is now the U.S.), but not Italian?
For my purposes, I'm interested in areas that are now part of the United States, whether from the outset or not. For example, Louisiana French, Neomexicano, and Texas Hill German all developed in what is now the United States, but in areas which weren't part of the U.S. when they developed.
For my purposes, I'm interested in areas that are now part of the United States, whether from the outset or not. For example, Louisiana French, Neomexicano, and Texas Hill German all developed in what is now the United States, but in areas which weren't part of the U.S. when they developed.
