Abolition of French Serfdom?

Serfdom was mostly abolished by the Edict of 1315, for what matter most of France; and was already massively declining in the XIIIth century.
Remain of serfdom (servage réel, which was tied to the land, and not the person) was abolished too by the Edict of 1779 IOTL.

Note that servage réel did survived locally even after 1779 as the abolition was accompanied by the obligation to buy back these rights, which wasn't always possible (roughly, it would have meant for the crown to compensating the indirect great landowers the value of the land, because it made the direct landowners the real ones eventually).

You may want to have better sources on XVIIIth French society as, let alone the fact serfdom as a personal status virtually disappered from France since five centuries at this point*, buying back servage réel would have been a real financial issue.

*Arguably, it wasn't entierly the case in New France. But giving the PoD, we can rule out its relevance there.
 
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Serfdom was mostly abolished by the Edict of 1315, for what matter most of France; and was already massively declining in the XIIIth century.
Remain of serfdom (servage réel, which was tied to the land, and not the person) was abolished too by the Edict of 1779 IOTL.

Note that servage réel did survived locally even after 1779 as the abolition was accompanied by the obligation to buy back these rights, which wasn't always possible (roughly, it would have meant for the crown to compensating the indirect great landowers the value of the land, because it made the direct landowners the real ones eventually).

You may want to have better sources on XVIIIth French society as, let alone the fact serfdom as a personal status virtually disappered from France since five centuries at this point*, buying back servage réel would have been a real financial issue.

*Arguably, it wasn't entierly the case in New France. But giving the PoD, we can rule out its relevance there.

My mistake then. I was under the impression that total serfdom wasn't abolished until the revolution - wikipedia gives its date for France as August 1789. But, be that as it may, 1779 is still eighteen years after the POD in my TL (1761), which gets me wondering about how ttl's Louis XVI can make it more effective than OTL's promulgation. Any suggestions?
 
As said above, actually abolishing servage réel (which is about properties of the land, not properties of the individual : it was less abolishing serfdom, than servitude of the land, even if I agree the distinction is artificial) would require an important financial effort, as it would make land workers the actual landowners, forcing the state to compensate the previous landowners.
It's why even the abolition of "feudality" the 4th August 1789 didn't managed to pull it off entierly, as it maintained the principle of compensation : eventually (after a serie of decrees), only the decree of 17th July 1793 really abolished it definitely because it abandoned the idea of compensation even with actual proof of landownership or obligation, something that Louis XVI would be unable to do.

I said unable, but unwilling would cover it giving his large opposition to what happened in August 1789. So we would have a big financial obstacle and an ideological refusal to by-pass it.
 
As said above, actually abolishing servage réel (which is about properties of the land, not properties of the individual : it was less abolishing serfdom, than servitude of the land, even if I agree the distinction is artificial) would require an important financial effort, as it would make land workers the actual landowners, forcing the state to compensate the previous landowners.
It's why even the abolition of "feudality" the 4th August 1789 didn't managed to pull it off entierly, as it maintained the principle of compensation : eventually (after a serie of decrees), only the decree of 17th July 1793 really abolished it definitely because it abandoned the idea of compensation even with actual proof of landownership or obligation, something that Louis XVI would be unable to do.

I said unable, but unwilling would cover it giving his large opposition to what happened in August 1789. So we would have a big financial obstacle and an ideological refusal to by-pass it.

And that's TTL Louis XVI, with all the problems (including financial) that went with it. In my TL, the duc de Bourgogne becomes Louis XVI and levels the taxes across the board, stays out of the American Revolution, gets back Louisiane (or part thereof) from Spain and is undertaking to settle it, and doesn't reinstate the parlements abolished by Louis XV. Would the finances still be such a big obstacle? And as I asked, can he abolish it with the 1793 idea rather than with the 1779 idea? I get why the "owners" would be pissed about it, but it seems like it would be a better idea (although that could be a refusal to do it).

What other reforms would you suggest that he enacts (note: I'm not asking for wankish ideas, but ones that maybe could've been passed OTL, but the king either lacked the stomach or the strength or the support to push it through)?
 
And that's TTL Louis XVI, with all the problems (including financial) that went with it.
Indeed, my bad.
But altough this *Louis XVI could be more politically-skilled (would it be only because of a better education and much less neglect), he would have roughly the same absolutist-aristocratic mindset that his father and his brother. One can't go this much against their own social, political and cultural world when they're this high-placed (especially when, already as a child, Bourgogne appeared as a bright but really arrogant person) : the question may be more about how much *Louis XVI would trust the liberal economist of his time (he would, but maybe not as much as his brother?)

gets back Louisiane (or part thereof) from Spain and is undertaking to settle it
That would be a massive financial drain if taken seriously, without real guarantee of success : Louisiana was barely populated (by Europeans, of course), with New-Orleans capping at 3,200 inhabitants including non-whites. With the historical failure of the Compagnie du Mississipi, *Louis XVI is going to have an hard time interesting investors, settlers or really anyone, meaning any serious policy on Louisiana would ask for the state to send huge funds.

Now Lower Louisiana, economically-wise, was much closer to the French Carribean model, as in heavy servile cash-crops plantation economy (which was put up to eleven with the aftermath of the Seven Years War) rather than the mix between manorial self-sustaining economy and trade opportunism of French Canada.
It's certain that *Louis XVI's Louisiana will be attempted to turn into a continental Haiti with everything it implies socially and politically : anyone willing to take it would have a field day and the only reason not to do so would be the issues including a mainly black and servile population within their own turf.

Would the finances still be such a big obstacle?
It will : even disregarding the cost of develloping a French Louisiana (for what matter trade, it wouldn't tip the huge French deficit, and would only increase its dependency on sugar and other cash-crops), compensating landowners for the effective loss of their property at the benefit of whoever worked it would be really important, if it would be forced at all. Even the definitely reform-minded revolutionnaries couldn't deal with it that effectively (even by making the compensation of landowners as reduced it could be) before simply deciding to effectively takeover the land without compensation.

but it seems like it would be a better idea (although that could be a refusal to do it).
If you have to wait a king that disregard legal technicalities and reason as a Jacobin at the height of the radical Republic...well, let's say you'd have to wait a long time, IMO.

What other reforms would you suggest that he enacts (note: I'm not asking for wankish ideas, but ones that maybe could've been passed OTL, but the king either lacked the stomach or the strength or the support to push it through)?
- Fiscal reformations and rationalization would be a main and needed change, especially the establishment of a direct tax : reform or replacement of taille, more fiscal uniformisation (especially for gabelle), etc. It would be as hard to pull than it is necessary, tough.

- Internationally, I'm not sure the absence of a French support in ARW would be sound : IOTL, it did made a lot of sense and really put back France into business (and general modernisation of its army. Sure, it would be a drain, but after all Louis XIV's wars were and the monarchy did survived it. Now, it certainly aggravated the issue, but either the crippling debt alone caused the Revolution and then it's an issue that predates the PoD by far and you'll end up with a great financial-political crisis eventually, either it is managable (if not entierly, far from it) by a sound fiscal and financial policy.
In fact, bigger gains for France and avoiding its fleet to be sunk in 1782 would probably alleviate the issue.
 
Bump back to the first page.

I can't remember but France still lacked a national bank, didn't it? What would be the chances of TTL's Louis XVI establishing one? Could he? Would he?
 
Depending on the general ideological outlook of *Louis XVI's reign), I wouldn't be that confident on chances to see one appear at this point : the economist mindset in France in the late Ancien Régime was really favourable to liberal and pro-deregulation economists, and eventually to a more or less spontaneous free banking system.
That said, does that means there's no grounds for a proto-national bank? I think there is : the Caisse d'Escompte was basically a proto-Banque de France which was created mostly to cushion the financial crisis of 1767 and was dissolved two years later.

It was re-created in 1776 by Turgot and Panchaud, mostly following the "scottish" economical model, so semi-public and mostly driven by the market (which doesn't that follows) and it risked bankrupt in the 1780's, while trying really hard to be a new Bank of England. It wasn't that efficient to deal with the financial crisis, and ended up being unpopular among French bourgeoisie and petty bourgeoisie.

I could see *Louis XVI recreating the Caisse as IOTL, but I would be surprised if it was anything more than an half-assed Bank of England at the mercy of Scottish and French economists.

If you're interested on Ancien Régime and Révolution's public finance and banking system...
 
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