Did the Warsaw Pact states have Holodomors? And if not, why not?

They were not there as occupation forces,
they were reinforced by 15 divisions from the metropoly in November, which were sent back home after crushing the revolt,
How is "crushing the revolt" in any way possible, not occupation?

they were part of WT defence, just as US divisions were (and are) part of NATO.
When did USA forces in NATO openly deploy massive divisional sized force and fire at large civilian demonstrations?
 
How is "crushing the revolt" in any way possible, not occupation?
Crushing the revolt is occupation, but it lasted only for weeks. For the rest of 40 years it was not occupation.
When did USA forces in NATO openly deploy massive divisional sized force and fire at large civilian demonstrations?
Soviet divisions were deployed in Hungary when armed uprising was in full force.
 
Crushing the revolt is occupation, but it lasted only for weeks. For the rest of 40 years it was not occupation.

Soviet divisions were deployed in Hungary when armed uprising was in full force.
They did it twice, and could have done it again, so It's not just the weeks it's basically a hanging threat over the entire period that forces the local governments to do what the advisors or phone line from Moscow tells them.....

It's also irrelevant, as you said,
Eastern European countries were not occupied by USSR.
Since they were occupied by USSR at least twice, this is simply wrong, even if they did not get occupied for the entire CW?
 
And of course one reason there was not a bloodbath of 1937-8 proportions in eastern Europe is that there also wasn't any in the USSR in 1945-53
Why did Stalin get so soft and lazy for those eight particular years. Why did Politburo turnover slow down so much?
 
Why did Stalin get so soft and lazy for those eight particular years. Why did Politburo turnover slow down so much?
Probably dealing with the fallout after the greatest war in human history?
Also that early on they did not have full control of the local governments in Eastern Europe and after that USA had the only bombs, starting large scale fighting (even just internal massacres) in Europe might well have escalated tension (combined with Berlin and Korea) towards WWIII at a point that USSR was not ready for it?
 
Why did Stalin get so soft and lazy for those eight particular years. Why did Politburo turnover slow down so much?
Per Solzhenitsyn, 1947 is when they introduced the 25-year Gulag sentence to celebrate the 30th anniversary of the revolution (earlier, it had been a 10-year maximum). So there might have been a lot of reprocessing of people already in the system in 1947.
 
They did it twice, and could have done it again, so It's not just the weeks it's basically a hanging threat over the entire period that forces the local governments to do what the advisors or phone line from Moscow tells them.....
There were no "advisors", and locals didn't consult Moscow on every occasion. They had full control of their countries, but their independence was limited in some ways (for example, they couldn't quit WT). Hence a hanging threat.
Since they were occupied by USSR at least twice, this is simply wrong, even if they did not get occupied for the entire CW?
Japan was occupied by US once. By your logic it's still occupied.
 
Why did Stalin get so soft and lazy for those eight particular years. Why did Politburo turnover slow down so much?
Stalin never got soft and lazy. Bloodbath of the Great Terror was not intended or planned, it was a system crash, a guillotine out of control.
 
Per Solzhenitsyn, 1947 is when they introduced the 25-year Gulag sentence to celebrate the 30th anniversary of the revolution (earlier, it had been a 10-year maximum). So there might have been a lot of reprocessing of people already in the system in 1947.
They introduced 25-year sentence because the death penalty was abolished.
 
Crushing the revolt is occupation, but it lasted only for weeks. For the rest of 40 years it was not occupation.
Only the ongoing threat of crushing in case of an uprising is an occupation by threat of force even if the tanks aka 'force' are not actually rolling down the streets every day

Frankly it's a bit like saying unless the occupying solider is standing directly in front of you pointing his gun at you right at that moment, then you are not occupied.
But if he is ready to do so whenever you do something he doesn't like, than you are occupied.

Now you might argue asking for help to repress illegitimate rebellions isn't the same as occupying, but well you then need legitimate alternatives to uprisings, stuff like democratic processes , and not too many of them in the Warsaw pact.


tl;dr Eastern and a chunk of Central Europe was occupied by the USSR 1944-45 onwards the fact they pulled back most of their forces most of the time and tried to use or co-opt local options if they could, doesn't change that
 
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