If the Ottomans were Persianate, why were Ottoman mosques modelled off the Hagia Sophia (a Byzantine building) rather than being built Persian-style with iwans facing a courtyard? Is it a coincidence that architecturally there is an east-west split in the Islamic world, on roughly the same line that before Islam was the Roman-Persian frontier?
Elements of Hagia Sophia went into Ottoman mosques, but the layout is much different. Suleymaniye references both Hagia Sophia and the Dome of the Rock - this evokes both Solomon's temple and Justinian's boast "Solomon, I have surpassed thee!" Suleyman is the Turkish form of "Solomon", and Suleyman consciously represented himself as "the Second Solomon".
Ottoman mosques do have iwans (eyvan in Turkish), which you can see in pre-Istanbul mosque, and they are still present thereafter, but they are de-emphasized and are not monumental. Note tiled interiors rather than mosaics, etc.
In any case, there's no pan-Iranian standard for architecture. The Ottomans were a beylik of the Seljuk Empire, which was a Persian state with a Turkish dynasty. The Ottomans used Persian (until later, and used the Persian alphabet to the end) as the language of state, Persian forms of government, wrote in Persian poetry styles, etc. etc.