IOTL Charles II refused to entertain any plans of dividing his realm upon his death. This however did not stop the powers of England, the United Provinces, and France from negotiating treaties to divide Spain's territories and avoid a war of succession. The 1700 Treaty of London was the last partition treaty made between the three powers before the death of Charles II. The treaty stipulated that the Archduke Charles (cousin of Charles II I think?), the son of the Holy Roman Emperor Leopold, I would receive the main Spanish inheritance while the Italian territories of Naples, Sicily, Milan, the Presidi, and Finale plus the Iberian territory of Gipuzkoa would be given to France as compensation for not pushing the claims of the House of Bourbon, with the plan being that France would cede Milan to the Duke of Lorraine in exchange for Lorraine proper.
Charles II IOTL rejected this plan and in his final will named Philip Duke of Anjou the heir of all his dominions, thinking that Louis XIV was his best chance of maintaining the integrity of his realm. This ended disastrously for Spain, with the kingdom losing much more than just what was outlined in the treaty, having to cede not just the Italian territories mentioned but also Sardinia, the Spanish Netherlands, Gibraltar, and Menorca, while also having to give the British various trade monopolies in the Indies. Now let's say that instead of leaving it up to God, Charles II decides that it's better not to gamble and agrees to the provisions of the 1700 Treaty of London.
What would the consequences be of continued Habsburg rule over Spain and of continued Spanish rule over the Southern Netherlands, Sardinia, and Gibraltar? What would be France's next move considering that they're the big winners in all of this? France also avoids the first in a string of 18th century defeats if the treaty is upheld. Does Europe avoid a grand war or is a new one right around the corner? Could the precedent set by the Treaty of London make negotiated peace before conflict much more common? How would Spain be different without the wartime reforms made by Philip V (the most prominent being the Nueva Planta decrees)? Would we see a revival of Charles V/I's empire or will Austria be thrown to the Wittelsbachs? I know that Charles II presided over a period of relative peace and prosperity, with his rule being defined by massive deflation, an increase of purchasing power across his realms, a notable lack of famine, and a general uptick in quality of life. Would Spain passing over to the Archduke (this TL's Charles III) quietly and peacefully see a continuation of these positive trends?
Europe before the death of Charles II:
View attachment 699942
Europe after the death of Charles II in this TL:
View attachment 699946
Charles II IOTL rejected this plan and in his final will named Philip Duke of Anjou the heir of all his dominions, thinking that Louis XIV was his best chance of maintaining the integrity of his realm. This ended disastrously for Spain, with the kingdom losing much more than just what was outlined in the treaty, having to cede not just the Italian territories mentioned but also Sardinia, the Spanish Netherlands, Gibraltar, and Menorca, while also having to give the British various trade monopolies in the Indies. Now let's say that instead of leaving it up to God, Charles II decides that it's better not to gamble and agrees to the provisions of the 1700 Treaty of London.
What would the consequences be of continued Habsburg rule over Spain and of continued Spanish rule over the Southern Netherlands, Sardinia, and Gibraltar? What would be France's next move considering that they're the big winners in all of this? France also avoids the first in a string of 18th century defeats if the treaty is upheld. Does Europe avoid a grand war or is a new one right around the corner? Could the precedent set by the Treaty of London make negotiated peace before conflict much more common? How would Spain be different without the wartime reforms made by Philip V (the most prominent being the Nueva Planta decrees)? Would we see a revival of Charles V/I's empire or will Austria be thrown to the Wittelsbachs? I know that Charles II presided over a period of relative peace and prosperity, with his rule being defined by massive deflation, an increase of purchasing power across his realms, a notable lack of famine, and a general uptick in quality of life. Would Spain passing over to the Archduke (this TL's Charles III) quietly and peacefully see a continuation of these positive trends?
Europe before the death of Charles II:
View attachment 699942
Europe after the death of Charles II in this TL:
View attachment 699946