Simple question. OTL the Howards and the Seymours had as many brushes with the law (if not more than) as the Staffords did. Yet, the Howards and the Seymours are STILL dukes of Norfolk/Somerset. The Staffords, after the 3e duke's execution in 1521, never really recovered go the same extent. Hell, the Percies bequeathed the earldom of Northumberland to the crown and still got it back later.
No Stafford was ever recreated "duke of Buckingham" and by the reign of Charles I was languishing in poverty and obscurity.
My question is why?
No Stafford was ever recreated "duke of Buckingham" and by the reign of Charles I was languishing in poverty and obscurity.
My question is why?
