Just as it says:
Was there any point (say, post 1750) that North and South America might have officially been termed something else (Columbia, Peruana, Mexicana, etc)?
Or was it too late by that point as the names were established enough?
Thanks.
Was there any point (say, post 1750) that North and South America might have officially been termed something else (Columbia, Peruana, Mexicana, etc)?
Or was it too late by that point as the names were established enough?
Thanks.