What if the Portuguese never colonized Brazil?

So as let’s say that the initial Portuguese settlements in Brazil fail miserably and the Portuguese king then decides the entire thing is a waste of time and that he would rather just focus on their territories in Africa and Asia. I’m guessing the Spanish would try and settle it coming from there settlements in Argentina. Maybe the British French and Dutch might make more tries at colonizing. How might this affect the rest of history?
 

Grey Wolf

Donor
I would think that the Spanish would believe that they had the RIGHT to colonise it, as this is Portugal abandoning Tordesillas, and if Portugal does that, then the point of the treaty lapses, and the New World is Spain's.

Of course, other countries might well not agree with this! It really depends on when Portugal does this? 16th century, and I can't see much more than some British attempts to set up a trading post in rivalry to Spain. 17th century, after Portugal's re-independence, then other countries are going k at Guyana (in the general term) then you see Britain, France and the Dutch in OTL already DID seize territory from the Portuguese claim. If Portugal unilatera
 
Portuguese position in Asiatic trade became feeble by 1570-80s when the Levant route regain prominence, and the sugar trade in Brazil became the focus of colonial trade and a profitable one. Regarding the sugar plantations, Portugal, by the time of the Brazilian colonization, had centuries of experience and experimentation in the Madeira Island, therefore the Brazilian discovery and colonization would inevitably be successful.

It would be more believable if the Tordesillas treaty didn't provide the 500 leagues (miles or what measurement was) that included Brazilian lands into the Portuguese sphere of influence.

Portugal could try to establish some feitorias by SA or would be more dependent on the farming by the Zambezi river has a wayward stop to replenish the ships bound to India. Don't forget that the voyages to Asia had a mortality rate from 20% to 50% if stops were made. Another thing to consider is if Sebastian dies in Africa and the Iberian Union is establish or not, the Asian possessions would still suffer from the Anglo-Dutch attacks.

Overall I believe that if politically speaking things go like OTL Portugal would be a less powerful colonial nation with a feeble hold in Asia.
 
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France had a colony in Brazil in the 16th cent. Around the vicinity of Rio de Janeiro. This was IOTL.
 
Looking it up, it seems most initial Portuguese colonies around the world were made by private investors, explorers, traders, etc. No real cost to the crown. Kind of how most European colonies initially started in Africa and Asia. When it came to Brazil the crown eventually got involved, but it seems that it was because they wanted to monopolize the brazilwood trade, as it could be used to make dyes. We should remember what the Dutch or Portuguese did in the Soice Islands, one of them destroying all the trees on other islands in order to monopolize the trade of a certain spice. It seems the slave trade was a big thing for the Portuguese before getting Brazil, but we should still think on how this effects prices. The South Sea Bubble in Great Britain came along because at one point the English got a monopoly on trading slaves to the Spanish colonies, somthere is a risk that if Spain gets Brazil the Portuguese would need to trade through the English and lose a cut of the profits. Also has a ripple effect innthe interior of Africa and on the coast, depending on how it effects the demand for slaves.
 
The Dutch had a colony in Brazil OTL, wouldn't they do the same ITTL?
Depends on a lot of factors they didn't had the Brazilian colonies in the traditional sense since the Portuguese were the ones controlling the production. Also they went after the sugar that was already there and because it was a profitable commodity.
 
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The French had a presence in Brazil decades before the foundation of France Antarctique, with ships regularly smuggling brazilwood back to Europe in spite of the Portuguese feitorias. My guess is that they'll establish a handful of forts along the coast in the 1520s and 30s (they tried once, but the Portuguese destroyed it), then a permanent settlement sometime later.
 
The French had a presence in Brazil decades before the foundation of France Antarctique, with ships regularly smuggling brazilwood back to Europe in spite of the Portuguese feitorias. My guess is that they'll establish a handful of forts along the coast in the 1520s and 30s (they tried once, but the Portuguese destroyed it), then a permanent settlement sometime later.
The very first French presence in Brazil may even date from... 1488. Yes, before 1492. But it is disputed.
See there :
 
The French had shown some interest in Brazil, which ultimately led to the Portuguese crown making the first attempt to occupy the territory in 1534 with the division of the region into captaincies. However, it is possible that the Portuguese crown ignore the region. It would likely fall to the French and it is plausible to see the English follow suit.

Without Brazil, likely trade from the Indies becomes the sole focus of the Portuguese Crown and efforts to shore up existing trading enclaves there are heightened. Without Brazil, the establishment of Luanda and Benguela as slave entrepots likely does not come to fruition as there is no longer such a demand for slaves. Madeira and later Sao Tome produced sugar in quantities large enough for the Portuguese domestic market, however I do see it being undercut by foreign sugar once foreign competition grows.
 
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