I was wondering if there would be anyway Spain could expand its colonial holdings during the 19th century after losing most of America. The smaller powers of the Netherlands and Portugal were able to expand their colonial holdings during this time whilst Spain simply got the small and resource poor regions of Rio de Oro and Rio Muni in Africa. I don't want to write a lengthy detailed timeline, but here are some ideas that I thought of.
I was thinking perhaps if Spain had kept its holdings in Algeria after 1792? Also, if Spain could take Algiers before the French do. Though Spain was a somewhat weakened country, they had launched raids on the Barbary Coast throughout the 18th century. Perhaps during the 1784 Spanish bombardment of Algiers they decide to take the city. This could lead to a conquest of the rest of country just after the Carlist Wars.
I'd imagine that a pacification of Algeria could be lengthy, but by the mid-19th century the Spanish could control Algeria north of the Atlas Mountains. I do imagine the Spanish being a bit more ruthless with the Muslim population than the French were. In 1859-1860 Spain fought and won a war against Morocco, however what if by that time Algeria is firmly under Spanish control and Morocco is conquered. I imagine this too would lead to a somewhat lengthy campaign of pacification.
In French Algeria, Jews were given French Citizenship in 1870 and this was followed in Tunisia and French Morocco to make the Jews loyal to the French Republic, however Spain never offered the Jews of Spanish Morocco Spanish citizenship, so I can't imagine that would happen. Which brings me to another major difference between a Spanish and a French Algeria. French Algeria's non-Muslim community was very cosmopolitan, with most being of non-French origin by 1962 (400,000 alone were of Spanish origin in 1962, of these 300,000 were located in the Oran region).
Poorer Spain had a growing population (unlike France's fairly stagnant population). For that reason, France invited non-French Europeans in large numbers to Algeria, Tunisia and Morocco. Spaniards from Murcia and Alicante and later Andalusia settled the western portion of Algeria and in Oujda (Morocco). Algier's Spaniards were mostly from Alicante and Andalusia and the department of Constantine had mostly Valencians and Balearic Islanders. In 1913 alone 33,000 Spaniards moved to Africa (mostly North Africa). However, a large number returned to neutral Spain during to avoid conscription during WWI.
In 1885 Spain claimed the Rio de Oro coast and subsequently Rio Muni due to historical treaties with Portugal which gave those areas to Spain. Perhaps as a result of the Scramble Spain claims everything North of Cabo Blanco in a straight line. If they control Algeria and Morocco, the other powers would presumably not object.
Finally, in 1777 Portugal ceded the islands of Fernando Poo, Annobon along with rights to the territory between the Niger River and the Ogooué Rivers to Spain in return for the territorial adjustments in Brazil. Spain also annexed the Corsico and Elobey islands in that region around 1843. So perhaps Spain could begin to send some explorers to the region during that 19th century to map the inland regions and setup some sort of stations along the coast. If they are successful, Spain could control a fairly substantial Equatorial colony in Africa with lots of oil.
The effects on Spain would be interesting. Firstly, Spain would have long military campaigns of pacification to distract the country throughout the 1830-1850 and 1860-70 period. I imagine the Spanish-American war to still occur, however at least Spain would still be left with a substantial colonial empire. The 20th century is where we would see the real butterflies. With a neutral Spain during WWII, how would have a North African campaign proceeded (invasion of Tunisia?). Also, without the Italians and Maltese not going to Eastern Algeria in large numbers, perhaps more end up in Tunisia (and Tunisia does fall to the Italians).
One interesting thing that would develop, is certain areas would be much more Spanish than Arab. The European population in Algeria and Morocco would undoubtedly be much larger due to the proximity of Spain and lots of poor Andalusians claiming land in North Africa. The cheap cost of travel across the Mediterranean could make this a desirable region to the poorest peasants who cannot afford the passage to Latin America. Lots of poor Spanish farmers who area hellbent on preserving their privileges would become a problem. This would eventually boil over into rage against the Spaniards after the 1950s. But I imagine Algeria could have some 2-3 million Spaniards vs 7 million Arabs by 1950. Morocco could have another 1-1.5 million Spaniards vs 7 million Arabs.
In OTL, decolonization was fairly easy for Spain. In 1953 when the French sent Mohammed V into exile it was the Spaniards who protested and in 1955 the French acquiesced and departed Morocco the next year. Spanish Morocco only had 90,000 Spaniards (of these 55,000 were in Tetuan), and repatriating them wasn't too onerous. As for Spanish Guinea, the small colony was thought of as having little and the Spaniards granted the territory self-rule in 1963 and independence in 1968.
With such vast colonies and presumably staying out of World War II, Spain's attitudes would have been much different than say France's. In OTL, Oran's population was still 2/3 European in 1950. With many more Spaniards and fewer non-Muslims such a city would be 15% Muslim. The Algiers and Oran Regions itself would be over 60% European by 1960. A large European population would have wanted to fight on, and perhaps Spain would have been mired in a bloody war lasting much longer than France's did. Also, perhaps the Muslim inhabitants of a Spanish North Africa would have teamed up with the Basque terrorists by the early 1970s.
I was thinking perhaps if Spain had kept its holdings in Algeria after 1792? Also, if Spain could take Algiers before the French do. Though Spain was a somewhat weakened country, they had launched raids on the Barbary Coast throughout the 18th century. Perhaps during the 1784 Spanish bombardment of Algiers they decide to take the city. This could lead to a conquest of the rest of country just after the Carlist Wars.
I'd imagine that a pacification of Algeria could be lengthy, but by the mid-19th century the Spanish could control Algeria north of the Atlas Mountains. I do imagine the Spanish being a bit more ruthless with the Muslim population than the French were. In 1859-1860 Spain fought and won a war against Morocco, however what if by that time Algeria is firmly under Spanish control and Morocco is conquered. I imagine this too would lead to a somewhat lengthy campaign of pacification.
In French Algeria, Jews were given French Citizenship in 1870 and this was followed in Tunisia and French Morocco to make the Jews loyal to the French Republic, however Spain never offered the Jews of Spanish Morocco Spanish citizenship, so I can't imagine that would happen. Which brings me to another major difference between a Spanish and a French Algeria. French Algeria's non-Muslim community was very cosmopolitan, with most being of non-French origin by 1962 (400,000 alone were of Spanish origin in 1962, of these 300,000 were located in the Oran region).
Poorer Spain had a growing population (unlike France's fairly stagnant population). For that reason, France invited non-French Europeans in large numbers to Algeria, Tunisia and Morocco. Spaniards from Murcia and Alicante and later Andalusia settled the western portion of Algeria and in Oujda (Morocco). Algier's Spaniards were mostly from Alicante and Andalusia and the department of Constantine had mostly Valencians and Balearic Islanders. In 1913 alone 33,000 Spaniards moved to Africa (mostly North Africa). However, a large number returned to neutral Spain during to avoid conscription during WWI.
In 1885 Spain claimed the Rio de Oro coast and subsequently Rio Muni due to historical treaties with Portugal which gave those areas to Spain. Perhaps as a result of the Scramble Spain claims everything North of Cabo Blanco in a straight line. If they control Algeria and Morocco, the other powers would presumably not object.
Finally, in 1777 Portugal ceded the islands of Fernando Poo, Annobon along with rights to the territory between the Niger River and the Ogooué Rivers to Spain in return for the territorial adjustments in Brazil. Spain also annexed the Corsico and Elobey islands in that region around 1843. So perhaps Spain could begin to send some explorers to the region during that 19th century to map the inland regions and setup some sort of stations along the coast. If they are successful, Spain could control a fairly substantial Equatorial colony in Africa with lots of oil.
The effects on Spain would be interesting. Firstly, Spain would have long military campaigns of pacification to distract the country throughout the 1830-1850 and 1860-70 period. I imagine the Spanish-American war to still occur, however at least Spain would still be left with a substantial colonial empire. The 20th century is where we would see the real butterflies. With a neutral Spain during WWII, how would have a North African campaign proceeded (invasion of Tunisia?). Also, without the Italians and Maltese not going to Eastern Algeria in large numbers, perhaps more end up in Tunisia (and Tunisia does fall to the Italians).
One interesting thing that would develop, is certain areas would be much more Spanish than Arab. The European population in Algeria and Morocco would undoubtedly be much larger due to the proximity of Spain and lots of poor Andalusians claiming land in North Africa. The cheap cost of travel across the Mediterranean could make this a desirable region to the poorest peasants who cannot afford the passage to Latin America. Lots of poor Spanish farmers who area hellbent on preserving their privileges would become a problem. This would eventually boil over into rage against the Spaniards after the 1950s. But I imagine Algeria could have some 2-3 million Spaniards vs 7 million Arabs by 1950. Morocco could have another 1-1.5 million Spaniards vs 7 million Arabs.
In OTL, decolonization was fairly easy for Spain. In 1953 when the French sent Mohammed V into exile it was the Spaniards who protested and in 1955 the French acquiesced and departed Morocco the next year. Spanish Morocco only had 90,000 Spaniards (of these 55,000 were in Tetuan), and repatriating them wasn't too onerous. As for Spanish Guinea, the small colony was thought of as having little and the Spaniards granted the territory self-rule in 1963 and independence in 1968.
With such vast colonies and presumably staying out of World War II, Spain's attitudes would have been much different than say France's. In OTL, Oran's population was still 2/3 European in 1950. With many more Spaniards and fewer non-Muslims such a city would be 15% Muslim. The Algiers and Oran Regions itself would be over 60% European by 1960. A large European population would have wanted to fight on, and perhaps Spain would have been mired in a bloody war lasting much longer than France's did. Also, perhaps the Muslim inhabitants of a Spanish North Africa would have teamed up with the Basque terrorists by the early 1970s.
