Cuāuhtemōc
Banned
In my readings of Ptolemaic Egypt, I'm sensing there was this weird, undefined relationship between the king and the de jure Greek cities in Egypt: Alexandria, Naucratis and Ptolemais. Egypt was considered the property of the pharaoh, administered by royal bureaucrats and yet the cities seemed to have had self-governance, in theory. They had their own civic assemblies and given the same basic rights that Greek citizens would be familiar with.
As for the Ptolemaic monarchy itself, each subsequent king after Ptolemy III became more and more incompetent, delegating control to court advisors and what have you. Say in a world where Rome's not a factor (doesn't matter how), would it possible for the existing democratic institutions in Hellenistic Egypt to usurp control from the monarchy and establish some form of oligarchic republic, perhaps along similar lines to the early USA where land-owning individuals were granted representation in some sort of national assembly?
As for the Ptolemaic monarchy itself, each subsequent king after Ptolemy III became more and more incompetent, delegating control to court advisors and what have you. Say in a world where Rome's not a factor (doesn't matter how), would it possible for the existing democratic institutions in Hellenistic Egypt to usurp control from the monarchy and establish some form of oligarchic republic, perhaps along similar lines to the early USA where land-owning individuals were granted representation in some sort of national assembly?