Hi everyone,
I've read that prior to WW2, the British intended to move over from .303 to 8mm (7.92mm) Mauser caliber, which is exemplified by the purchase of the BESA machinegun and various developments late in the war.
However, by the time the war ended, the choice of the future caliber was mostly tied to the US decision, as it was expected that the Americans would be the main supplier in WW3 and therefore that ammunition should be standardized according to the US's choice.
However, what would the UK have done if the Entente had succeeded in defending the French border in the Spring/Summer of 1940 and had then defeated Germany by early 42 at the latest (which seems to be the main consensus in AH following such a POD)?
With such an early victory, it is dubious that the US would get to have such a major role in European geopolitics that ammunition caliber should be chosen according to its wishes.
First of all because the US likely would have remained neutral (but would have supplied the Entente with various equipment) during the war and wouldn't have had to send soldiers to the continent, but also because Europe would have been in far better shape following the war, and in a good position to deter any Soviet action (not that the Soviets would be all that interested in pushing beyond "liberating" German-occupied Western Poland and Czechoslovakia, with the latter probably remaining independent.
Therefore, it would seem more logical to me that the British would go for 8mm Mauser as intended as that was still a very common and good caliber in Europe (used IIRC by Germany, the Czechoslovaks, Poland, Spain, maybe Yugoslavia).
What are your thoughts on this question?
I've read that prior to WW2, the British intended to move over from .303 to 8mm (7.92mm) Mauser caliber, which is exemplified by the purchase of the BESA machinegun and various developments late in the war.
However, by the time the war ended, the choice of the future caliber was mostly tied to the US decision, as it was expected that the Americans would be the main supplier in WW3 and therefore that ammunition should be standardized according to the US's choice.
However, what would the UK have done if the Entente had succeeded in defending the French border in the Spring/Summer of 1940 and had then defeated Germany by early 42 at the latest (which seems to be the main consensus in AH following such a POD)?
With such an early victory, it is dubious that the US would get to have such a major role in European geopolitics that ammunition caliber should be chosen according to its wishes.
First of all because the US likely would have remained neutral (but would have supplied the Entente with various equipment) during the war and wouldn't have had to send soldiers to the continent, but also because Europe would have been in far better shape following the war, and in a good position to deter any Soviet action (not that the Soviets would be all that interested in pushing beyond "liberating" German-occupied Western Poland and Czechoslovakia, with the latter probably remaining independent.
Therefore, it would seem more logical to me that the British would go for 8mm Mauser as intended as that was still a very common and good caliber in Europe (used IIRC by Germany, the Czechoslovaks, Poland, Spain, maybe Yugoslavia).
What are your thoughts on this question?
