Mercantilism and Europe

HueyLong

Banned
Not using mercantilism in the terms of an economic system here, but I don't know of a term for a society in which merchants are respected.

IOTL, medieval Christianity in Europe had a decidedly anti-mercantile streak- there are the bans on usury, the idea of "fair" or "just" prices and a general disdain for "worldly" wealth. Didn't really get straightened out until after the Protestant Reformation, although the Renaissance also saw an opening up of the mercantile class.

However, Islam seemed a religion of merchants from the beginning. Though they shared the ban on usury, they generally exalted mercantile virtue and put merchants above landowners.

I know there was a social split as far back as the Roman Empire based on wealth from the East and land ownership or military service in the west and, well, caravans were a way of life for pre-Islam Easterners. The Middle East simply had more trade than relatively impoverished Europe.

Now, my question is this: how much of that was dependent on the religions in question and how much of that was based on the areas they occupied?
 
Not using mercantilism in the terms of an economic system here, but I don't know of a term for a society in which merchants are respected.

Neigther do I.

IOTL, medieval Christianity in Europe had a decidedly anti-mercantile streak- there are the bans on usury, the idea of "fair" or "just" prices and a general disdain for "worldly" wealth. Didn't really get straightened out until after the Protestant Reformation, although the Renaissance also saw an opening up of the mercantile class.

Wouldn't this rather be the Church but of course directing or trying to its adherents!
At least the Scandinavian Kings were eager to control trade by providing market towns giving them rights within certain limits according to city size etc.

However, Islam seemed a religion of merchants from the beginning. Though they shared the ban on usury, they generally exalted mercantile virtue and put merchants above landowners.

The Prophet for one was one.

Now, my question is this: how much of that was dependent on the religions in question and how much of that was based on the areas they occupied?

I don't see Scandinavian trade as being religious based pre-Christianity nor post. Acquainting one self to local customs might help in trade as the Vikings pre-Christianity discovered but this seems more to be a factor of religion being exclusive or inclusive.
Norse pre-Christianity seem to have been inclusive but apparently also so post. :D

So in a Norse context this seem to be a matter of practicality and accumulation of wealth than adherence to religion. (quite modern view - is it not???)
 
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