Starting from the Hellenic period and continuing till after the Arab Conquest. There's a part of the Monumentum Adulis as recorded by Cosmas that records the Asiatic campaigns of Ptolemy III and this was kept in well enough contrition until he 2nd/3rd century by the Ethiopians. ThThereas also another one discovered in the 2nd colonial era.
And there's no equivalent Latin inscription, so everything points to a long Hellenic Influence and nothing to a Roman specific one.(at least until Justinian).
I don't think I have to explain how Romanization and Hellenization went hand in hand in the Easter half of the Empire, I think this is common knowledge.
Ezana literally converted harder than Constantine and we have not Julian equivalent in Ethiopia, all things being equal, it sticks
We don't exactly know a lot about Ethiopia, also evidence of absence of something in our specific timeline in a place where we don't know much doesn't prove that it won't or can't happen in another timeline.
Wasn't his justification for banning them from teaching the classics just him going "Well, since Christians are hostile to Paganism, they certainly won't be able to teach Pagan works like the classics".
Yes, but it's doesn't look like he was particularly done cracking down on Christianity.
I guess it is a bit in ur face. But I don't see how a similar policy would stop Christian merchants from having similar enough Influence in Ethiopia.
Well it's a bit convenient how Christians only started having enough influence after Constantine, totally a coincidence, right?
The recorded Haleographies that survive are of like highest ranking Churchmen. Rome had Syrian Popes up to the 400s at least and probably later and England had Continental Bishops for similarly long.
England especially is a good example. Nobody would say its Christainity was barebones by the time of the Heptarchy just because bishops came from the continent.
Well if for some reason the Franks ended up Pagan in the mid 7th century you would have a good argument that the conversion of the Anglo-Saxons could be stopped and reversed given it was largely mediated by said continental influence.
I still don't see how stopping Christians from teaching the classics is stopping Christian traders or why he would even want to. If Christianity is a bad influence, why not have them weaken the neighbors?.
Julian thought it was uniquely spiritually bad, not bad in all other ways.
I still don't get how the state matters such here.
It's not direct, but neither is it 10-times-remove:
The imperial government gives support to churches -> those churches have more resources to communicated with each other, provide funding for missionaries and enforce compliance -> those churches have more power to compel outside people to convert
Or:
The imperial government gives support to churches -> more people convert to these religions -> they spread their religion to other places.
Like I don't think it's controversial to say that the Islamic takeover of India was important in the conversion of South-East Asia through Arab and Indian mercantile presence.
The conversion didn't occur under direct state support so I don't see how having a state that doesn't support Christianity matters.
The quote from Goldensilver81 also mentions diplomatic relationship with Rome as possibly playing a role in the conversion, it's not really something we can dismiss easily.
Infact, given many of the 9 saints considered to have converted the Ethiopian inland are speculated to be at least Schismatics of some type why won't some policy of like house arresting the Patriarch of Alexandria not increase their numbers?.
They were schismatic in respect to whatever Arian or semi-Arian emperor might have been in power, but I don't think they were schismatic in respect to the Nicean consensus.
There isn't much literary evidence in this period. I might as well ask you to show me evidence they were Pagan without relying on the congecture of the religion before Christianity being Pagan. What evidence is there?.
I quoted something that explicitly says Christianity likely didn't become predominant until the late 5th century and that essentially it was limited to the royalty and whoever was closest to it for decades.
The Conjecture that can be gotten is a fairly large Christian population in Aksum(the city) at least. Frumentius was made a Bishop metropolitan, as such that must have been a large Christian population.
Maybe, but Axum was likely a miniscule part of the overall population.
We don't get any attempt at a Pagan revival after Ezana and the making of Christainity the official religion occured under his successor not his 3/4th like in Rome.
Why is making the religion official something that can't be reversed? If he could change his religion on a whim why can't any other king do the same?
All this indicates a state whose Core was more Christian than Rome's core of Christianity.
Well archeologically there is no evidence of this when we do have evidence of Christianity later on. If Rome was 1-2% or 5% Christian in 312 CE, I'm not sure on what basis you could claim a larger share of Axum was.
Sure but nobody did Charity or priest hierarchy in the Roman Empire as systematically as the Christians did and generally Charity was seen as duty to the citizens, like Sartun protected the poor of Rome as citizens of Rome. Christians made it more of a good in and of itself.
So in summary, they did it far better.
Well given literally everyone was a citizen in the 4th century, the distinction might be moot.
Ultimately it's clear that Christians have virtually never been particularly more moral than most other religious communities that lived alongside them in any given society, they might just have marketed themselves better.