How come Hitler/the Nazis didn't dislike the Magyars for being "Asiatic"?

Socrates

During World War 2, Hitler was very happy to have an alliance with Hungary. However, his big issue with the Poles/Russians was that they contained "inferior" Asian stock due to the Mongol invasions. Surely this would have applied even more so to the Hungarians, who had a more Asian language?

For that matter, Hitler had privately criticized the Italians for having Moor blood mixed in. Why was he more uncomfortable with fairer skinned Poles than darker skinned Serbs?
 

sahaidak

Socrates said:
During World War 2, Hitler was very happy to have an alliance with Hungary. However, his big issue with the Poles/Russians was that they contained "inferior" Asian stock due to the Mongol invasions. Surely this would have applied even more so to the Hungarians, who had a more Asian language?

For that matter, Hitler had privately criticized the Italians for having Moor blood mixed in. Why was he more uncomfortable with fairer skinned Poles than darker skinned Serbs?
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Another inconsistent point in the Nazi 'racial science': the Nazis tried to exterminate the Poles and the Ukrainians, but were allied with Slovakia, even though all three peoples are very similar in language, appearance etc. They also approved of their Croatian allies genociding the Serbs, despite the Serbs and the Croatians speaking more or less the same language. (Disclaimer: I understand that the pro-Nazi Slovak and Croatian regimes did not represent their respective nations).
 
Dolan

Dolan

Banned
I think it did end up boils down to Hitler's formative years in Vienna. His roommate and best friend is Czech-Hungarian August Kubizek, who did wrote something about their days as poor young men in Vienna.
 

Jan Olbracht

Hitler had alliance with fully Asian Japanese, who were not considered inferior but were "Honorary Aryans" instead, while Slavs were viewed as subhumans due to tiny Asian admixture. Better don't expect any logic behind nazi racial science, because there isn't any. After all, Germans living east of Elbe also should be considered subhumans as descendants of Germanized Slavs.
 
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Bison

Banned
About Slovakia, why wasnt Pressburg/Bratislava adjoined to Germany when it was historically a German and Hungarian dominated city?
 

TDM

Socrates said:
During World War 2, Hitler was very happy to have an alliance with Hungary. However, his big issue with the Poles/Russians was that they contained "inferior" Asian stock due to the Mongol invasions. Surely this would have applied even more so to the Hungarians, who had a more Asian language?

For that matter, Hitler had privately criticized the Italians for having Moor blood mixed in. Why was he more uncomfortable with fairer skinned Poles than darker skinned Serbs?
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As others have said this hitler's race theories were not internally consistent (race theories at the time even when dressed up in the trappings of science is only really justification for what you want to do, or make you feel better about doing it)

Hungary was a chunk of a former ally (AH empire), Poland was a country that represented German failure in WW1 (as well as a longer history of competing Prussian and other influences in that bit of the world). In the other direction even though the Soviets might have talked about "freeing the working proletariat from the bonds of whatever" you can bet some of them also looked at poland as "that belongs to us", even if it only used to because an absolute monarch formed an army out of agrarian serfs to conquer it.
 
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Halagaz

It's generally more helpful and true to think of the Nazis as hardcore German(ic) supremacists, rather than "European nationalists" or whatever. The Poles, Ukrainians and Russians were screwed because they were in the way of Hitler's drive to the east. Hell, the Czechs' "racial character" was often praised by Nazis, up to and including Hitler himself, but that didn't mean they were going to get a good deal.

Hungary, on the other hand, was not in the way of the great projected German expansion. And it also helps that Hungary was a cornerstone country of post-1918 revisionism.
 
WaterproofPotatoes

WaterproofPotatoes

Jan Olbracht said:
Hitler had alliance with fully Asian Japanese, who were not considered inferior but were "Honorary Aryans" instead, while Slavs were viewed as subhumans due to tiny Asian admixture. Better don't expect any logic behind nazi racial science, because there isn't any. After all, Germans living east of Elbe also should be considered subhumans as descendants of Germanized Slavs.
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Even the Chinese and Japanese weren't safe- Himmler's plan was to use the Lebensraum to breed enough soldiers (with SS men having 8+ children with each of their 3 wives) and when he had enough soldiers (tens of millions), the inevitable Racial Holy War with the Asiatic races could commence.
 

Kaze

Banned
The genetics and the origins of the Huns / Xiongu are of some debate among Scholars, archaeologists, and historians. From what I remember, (and it has been a fox's age since it happened), there was a fist fight over it where a member of the one camp punched out the other.

However, it did not stop the Nazis from calling Japan the "Aryans of the East."
 

Veiovis

Socrates said:
Why was he more uncomfortable with fairer skinned Poles than darker skinned Serbs?
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huh,are we serbians really considered darker skinned? I am as pale as every german,and I hardly stand out in serbia.

anyways,the answer to your question is a combination of :

1) the nazis were happy to ignore "racial issues" in favor of realpolitik until the world was conquered

2) the nazis frequently changed their racial ideas

3) the nazis didn't actually have some grand unified racial philosophy. They all held ideas we would nowadays call "nazi",but within that constraint they were radically different and the nazis frequently held massive,bitter and dark as fuck nerd-rage debattes about it. Imagine two "communists" engaging each other with ice picked,but turned up to 11.
 

Jan Olbracht

Veiovis said:
2) the nazis frequently changed their racial ideas
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Serbia is good exaeple of this. Before Yugoslavia turned against Germany, Serbian people were not considered subhumans-they were considered by nazi pseudo-science as members of "Dinaric Race", second most valuable race after Nordics. Creation of Yugoslavia was compared to unification of Germany. After Axis invasion of Yugoslavia Serbs suddenly became subhumans like other Slavs.
 

Adamgerd

Jan Olbracht said:
Serbia is good exaeple of this. Before Yugoslavia turned against Germany, Serbian people were not considered subhumans-they were considered by nazi pseudo-science as members of "Dinaric Race", second most valuable race after Nordics. Creation of Yugoslavia was compared to unification of Germany. After Axis invasion of Yugoslavia Serbs suddenly became subhumans like other Slavs.
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China was initially called an aryan nation IIRC but then Germany allied Japan instead and Japan became aryan
 

Adamgerd

Socrates said:
During World War 2, Hitler was very happy to have an alliance with Hungary. However, his big issue with the Poles/Russians was that they contained "inferior" Asian stock due to the Mongol invasions. Surely this would have applied even more so to the Hungarians, who had a more Asian language?

For that matter, Hitler had privately criticized the Italians for having Moor blood mixed in. Why was he more uncomfortable with fairer skinned Poles than darker skinned Serbs?
Click to expand...
Your largest problem is trying to find consistency in the Nazi racial policy when there isn't any. It was just a chaotic justification to genocide other nationalities
 

Rion_marcus

I mean, if I heard it correctly then Mussolini even resented that the Japanese were more Aryan then the Italians. If this is true why would logic be used anywhere else? Although I should ask: Where were the true Aryan people on the nazi list? Respect, slavery or eradication?
 

EWHM

Lenin had it right: Who...Whom.
Which is to say politics is about WHO gets to do bad stuff to WHOM and whether you are the WHO or the WHOM.
Which groups the Nazis put into which classes aren't based on any sort of scientific process, that's just window dressing for the rubes. The question was who was viewed as a threat, who had the lebensraum they thought they wanted/needed, and who was more convenient as a vassal/satellite.
 

Ahab

The Roma Pepole are aryans, yet they were sent to the camps as well.. search no logic in nazisem, for you will find none.
 
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