After Napoléon fell, no one had ANY intention of his wife joining him on either Elba or St. Helena. Yet the pretense of the marriage was still maintained until Nappy's death.
Could Franz II have induced her to agree to an annulment? (On what grounds? Usual chestnuts of consanguinity and non-consummation would be off the table). It would bastardize Reichstadt (probably, since I can't see Franz petitioning for a separate dispensation confirming the boy's legitimacy), which means the Bourbons would likely sleep a bit easier (although Reichstadt's bastardy might be regarded by some like Mary Tudor's was earlier). Plus it would allow Franz II to remarry his eldest daughter advantageously (duke of Modena maybe - can't think of anyone else) in Austrian interests. I've read he was fine with his daughter's relationship with Neipperg (despite it being beneath her) because it kept her from Napoléon and her son. But in theory, wedding Luise to almost anyone else would achieve the same goals, wouldn't it?
Could Franz II have induced her to agree to an annulment? (On what grounds? Usual chestnuts of consanguinity and non-consummation would be off the table). It would bastardize Reichstadt (probably, since I can't see Franz petitioning for a separate dispensation confirming the boy's legitimacy), which means the Bourbons would likely sleep a bit easier (although Reichstadt's bastardy might be regarded by some like Mary Tudor's was earlier). Plus it would allow Franz II to remarry his eldest daughter advantageously (duke of Modena maybe - can't think of anyone else) in Austrian interests. I've read he was fine with his daughter's relationship with Neipperg (despite it being beneath her) because it kept her from Napoléon and her son. But in theory, wedding Luise to almost anyone else would achieve the same goals, wouldn't it?