Doing some research for the European parts of an American centric timeline, and I was curious about the assassination attempt on Louis Philippe in 1835. From what I've gathered, his son, Ferdinand Philippe, was more liberal than his father, which implies that he might be more open to the institutional changes that were wanted by French liberals. If Ferdinand Philippe ascends to the throne earlier, we might see the Kingdom of France get an actual constitution rather than continuing on the 1814 Charter, which would kneecap the 1848 revolutions, at least temporarily.
Without the French part of the 1848 revolutions, I don't think the rest of Europe erupts like it did IOTL. However, I do think that some kind of Europe-wide popular uprising was bound to happen at some point in the 19th century, but without France I think it is put off by a decade, give or take, and is more concentrated further east, possibly involving the Poles and Ukrainians in Russian.
So like it says in the title, Does killing Louis Philippe I prevent or delay the Revolutions of 1848, if so, by how much, and how different would it be?
Without the French part of the 1848 revolutions, I don't think the rest of Europe erupts like it did IOTL. However, I do think that some kind of Europe-wide popular uprising was bound to happen at some point in the 19th century, but without France I think it is put off by a decade, give or take, and is more concentrated further east, possibly involving the Poles and Ukrainians in Russian.
So like it says in the title, Does killing Louis Philippe I prevent or delay the Revolutions of 1848, if so, by how much, and how different would it be?