John Fredrick Parker
Donor
The reign of the Catholic Monarchs (Ferdinand and Isabella) saw the unification of Spain and the dawn of the Spanish Empire, but also a major centralization of power which came at the expense of the independent political influence of the nobility and bourgeoisie (which, prior to their reign, had been some of the most *progressive* in Europe).
My question is, could the 16th and 17th centuries in general have still seen the former without the latter? Mind you, the earlier moves toward absolutism don’t necessarily have to change; after all, the English parliament had been reduced to a rubber stamp for in a manner similar to that of the Spanish Cortes, but managed to reassert their counterbalancing role in governance later. Could Spain have managed the same?
My question is, could the 16th and 17th centuries in general have still seen the former without the latter? Mind you, the earlier moves toward absolutism don’t necessarily have to change; after all, the English parliament had been reduced to a rubber stamp for in a manner similar to that of the Spanish Cortes, but managed to reassert their counterbalancing role in governance later. Could Spain have managed the same?