This struck me odd, though.
You said the Vandals were in Maghreb. Why have a Latin-speaking country?
Aha. But North Africa would still be Vandal, yes?Because it already had a large Latin population (completely dominated the cities, coast and had large rural enclaves) and only the rural population spoke the original punic (a semitic language). Latins position as status languages meant that Punic would likely had died out before the 10th century, only the Arabic invasion stopped that and later assimilated Punic.
Aha. But North Africa would still be Vandal, yes?
So we have generally, Gothic Empire in the ERE, with Egypt being 'Roman'. North Africa is vandal. Italy will apparently become Burgundian...
And the Gothic Empire would probbably be forced to be centralised because of Persians and Aegyptians knocking on the doorstep.It should be said, when I say Latin I mean Vulgar Latin like French and Spanish.
Both the Vandals and Burgundians lacked the population to a linguistic takeover, in a century or two their languages will be dead, but the local languages will likely have adopted a lot of word from them, but both will have a lot more influence on their respective states cultures, with converting the local to Arianism and making a martial lifestyle a status lifestyle afforded only by the nobles.
The Burgudians will likely turn Italy into a feudal network of citistates (in a few centuries), while the Vandal will end up with a centralised empire.
And the Gothic Empire would probbably be forced to be centralised because of Persians and Aegyptians knocking on the doorstep.
What about the Hun-Gothic Relationship? Direct vassal sliding to tributary sliding to nominal status and then complete independence?
Also, what of the process of absorbing Byzantium? Would it be quick to conquer?Yes but also because their new territorium lend itself to centralisation
Independent Gothic state from the start of Thracian settlement, likely they will pay tribute to the Huns until Attilas death, but the Huns will disappear as threat in less than 40 years, and it likely the surviving Huns will end up as mercenaries for the Ostrogoths after their defeat (likely by the Gepids) and assimilate into the Gothic population.
If Attila sack Constatinoble it open up Thrace to a Ostrogothic Kingdom either as a Hunnic vassal or as Roman confederalis.
while Anatolian will end up being ruled by the Goths,
Not necessarily. There are some major differences between the Goths and Turks. Iberia or Gaul may be a better model for what would happen in Anatolia.of course religeous westen Anatolian will likely turn Arian*, which could result in a linguistic takeover by the Goth, in the same way the Turks did.
Independent Gothic state from the start of Thracian settlement, likely they will pay tribute to the Huns until Attilas death,
but the Huns will disappear as threat in less than 40 years
I have to say I don't see it. Constantinople has been taken by a fully foreign force only once, in 1453. And they had cannons. And the Empire consisted of . . . nothing but The City.
Constantinople also had more money than Attila can even understand, so they drown him in gold if they think the walls won't be repaired fast enough.
Yes, it is required because I don't want this nomad empire in Eastern Europe.There are some interesting ideas in this thread, but there're some things to consider.
Not really. The Ostrogoths consolidated from several groups of Goths living under Attila's domination. It is unlikely that the Huns would allow such a kingdom to coalesce after dedicating so much effort to dismantling the Gothic hierarchy. Even after the collapse of the Huns, the Goths of Thrace and Pannonia should little interest in working together. It was only when Roman machinations threatened to destroy the Goths did they come together.
If the Huns let them go.
Not necessarily. There are some major differences between the Goths and Turks. Iberia or Gaul may be a better model for what would happen in Anatolia.
The Goths were not really interested in converting Nicene Christians to their semi-Arian faith. OTL, both the Ostrogoths and Visigoths used religion as a way of separating the ruling elite from the ruled. I don't realy see any reason for this to change. To a lesser extent, the same could be said of the Gothic language.
There is also the matter of populations. There are just too many Romans for the Goths to assimilate, especially given the way they tended to adopt Roman practices and culture OTL. Both the Visigoths and Franks were largely assimilated by the populations they conquered.
When the Turks arrived, Anatolia's population had been greatly reduced.
I don't see where this independent Gothic state is coming from. At the time, the Goths in the East were under Hunnic domination. The Huns were very good at keeping their subjected peoples divided.
Why's that? Is it required that they fall apart as in OTL?
This is probably more interesting.
Burgundian Italy? Gothic Turkey? Roman Egypt? Berber-Latin Tunisia? Check out 447!
Anyways, I might consider doing this... Feudal Europe would certainly be intreresting...