The implications upon European affairs is not lost on me, however a point that I do believe is poignant to raise about European affairs, as well as conjecture of my own on the subject of future European history with this PoD. [Which I had already considered prior and have been in the process of hashing out, which - to the thanks of the detailed analysis above, as been much easier]
Fair enough. It is interesting to talk about.
The first issue I wish to address is the idea that Otto von Bismark et al would not seek a continued drive for the unification of Germany - whereas they had sought and driven to goad their enemies into attacking them in the drive towards unifying Germany on the Kleindeutschland model, case in point being the Austrian attack in 1866 and the French attack in 1870. I find it hard and unlikely to believe that a stronger France, one with large investments and a vested interest in an overseas puppet, would automatically mean the drive towards the absorption of Hesse-Darmstadt, Bavaria, Württemberg, and Baden would simply end - instead I believe it would take a different turn along a similar crisis that was concocted by Berlin in the drive to annex some, if not all, of these territories. What I will not contest is the fact that the German Empire as known to us today, will not exist in any form. The conquest of Alsace-Lorraine is indeed nothing more than a small dream, let alone a viable military operation.
This is where we get into a question of historiography.
Mostly from what has been said by Otto von Bismarck himself, a lot of people have got the impression that Otto von Bismarck was some kind of super-foresighted genius with a master plan who planned out the unification of Germany in advance, with successive Prussian victories over Denmark, Austria and France, and things only went wrong for Germany once the Germans abandoned his master plan. There is little reason to believe this.
Bismarck certainly wasn't a pan-Germanist who wanted German unification from the start; he first made his name fighting
against pan-Germanists before he came to power. First and foremost he was a Prussian reactionary. His main achievement was to help King Wilhelm I of Prussia to place the power of the King above that of the
Landtag, thus essentially neutralising the democratic gains he had hated and distrusted in the first place (and I do not use that word 'hated' lightly or without thought; it was indeed a profound and irrational hatred that was major in his character; more on this later). After that, Prussia did indeed successfully improve its army… mostly due to Wilhelm I, Moltke the Elder and Roon, not Bismarck in particular, and to a great extent due to Prussia reacting to lessons from previous wars, not in any sort of grand plan. The Second Schleswig War was caused by internal Danish events that were not caused by Bismarck or by Prussia at all. The German Confederation (principally Austria and Prussia) responded to this with war against Denmark, merely an opportunistic move by two great powers to take advantage of a weakerp ower, and the neutrality of Russia in this conflict cannot reasonably be attributed to Bismarck either; Russia was reasonably well-disposed towards Prussia since the Revolutions of 1848, especially to do with Poland. In Prussia those reactionaries supporting the King over the
Landtag did of course have reason to want a victorious war to distract people from that, but that search for distraction from domestic political difficulties by means of war was hardly unique to Bismarck or to Prussia, even within the Austro-Prussian War, let alone in warfare in general. The subsequent Austro-Prussian War was caused not by some master plan but, well, by the very thing that appeared to cause it: two great powers both had claims on a piece of territory (the Prussians by virtue of proximity to it and participation in the war, the Austrians, via the German Confederation, by virtue of their leadership thereof) and Prussia's excellent performance in the previous war made it unattractive to submit to Austria. The Austro-Prussian War was merely a direct consequence of the Second Schleswig War. Following that, the only one of the great wars that led to the unification of Germany which can be placed squarely on Bismarck's shoulders is the Franco-Prussian War, which was undertaken after a conversation between a cabal of Prussian reactionary militarists including Bismarck and Moltke, taking advantage of (a) a pretext created by a conversation about the Spanish succession crisis that was deliberately distorted in order to insult France, and (b) an extremely convenient diplomatic situation which Napoleon III had caused by issuing the Mainz threat in the environment of the Austro-Prussian War where Austria had been proven weak and Prussia strong in the protection of the South German states.
In short, I do not believe that it is reasonable to suggest that there was any sort of grand plan or continuous effort leading towards the unification of a
Kleindeutschland; on the contrary, it was a useful series of historical events that was exploited, opportunistically, by Prussia, and worked so well for Prussia because of an excellent army which was due to people other than Bismarck. Even if one does believe, in spite of all this, that the unification of Germany was the product of some grand plan, Bismarck would not have been capable of creating it. In spite of the popular impression of him as some super-intelligent master-schemer, in fact he was, at times, extremely impulsive. Most importantly, in the negotiations ending the Franco-Prussian War he went on a long rant towards the French negotiators expressing how he believed that the entire French nation was utterly untrustworthy because it wasn't an authoritarian monarchy and going on about how evil democracy and republicanism were, and he permitted the annexation of Alsace-Lorraine for short-term political reasons to do with placating the South German states by not having to station Prussian troops within them (a move that they, in particular Bavaria, would definitely not have liked). His stupid, impulsive antagonisation of the French was a mistake so tremendous it turned France against Germany for decades and thus caused a situation where for the rest of his career Bismarck had to work to clean up his own mess by trying, and of course failing (because it could never reasonably have succeeded in the long run), to keep France diplomatically isolated. These are not the actions of a super-intelligent long-term schemer, they are the actions of an impulsive opportunist who seized chances when they were handed to him on a silver platter.
I don't doubt that the North German Confederation would seek to make further territorial gains if it had the opportunity, simply as
any great power would, but I do not think it is reasonable to say that there was a "drive towards the absorption of Hesse-Darmstadt, Bavaria, Württemberg, and Baden". I do not believe that it was at all inevitable that these territories would be gained by North Germany. Nor do I believe that Berlin was in the habit of "concocting crises"; the only crisis that can reasonably be said to have been "concocted" by the Prussians was the Austro-Prussian War, and even then it's pretty dodgy, since there were already
two convenient events (the results of the Austro-Prussian War, namely the discrediting of Austria as a plausible protector of the South German states in the immediate wake of its great defeat and the South German states' adhesion to North Germany in the wake of the Mainz threat, and the Spanish candidacy crisis) which were operating
at the same time and which were not caused by Berlin; Bismarck merely took advantage of this excellent situation by distorting one conversation. I do not contend that Bismarck didn't cause the Franco-Prussian War; he did. But he didn't cause it out of the blue, and he wasn't in the habit of causing wars out of the blue; he was an opportunist, but not a crazy one, a fairly cautious one. He triggered a war when the pretext was already there, merely needing to be twisted/lit to set off the war, and at a time when Prussia was in a supremely excellent position already.
Another point of issue I hold is the United Kingdom, which I do not fall into the assumption that it always sided against the strongest power on the continent, but instead I believe London would not, under any circumstances, be comfortable with any form of friendship between France and North Germany - which I contend is possible so long as issues up and down the Rhine are settled -
A big if, but yes.
and this would bring London to support one side or the other eventually
Why?
The United Kingdom does not wish France and North Germany to forge an alliance. Does that mean that France and North Germany are going to be opposing each other, and desirous of an alliance with the United Kingdom against the other? The United Kingdom is powerless to force two great powers which do not particularly hate each other to fight each other for its own sake.
One cannot emphasise enough that without Alsace-Lorraine the relations between Paris and Berlin are
not destined for hostility. Look at 1866 and the events that caused it, in a TL without the Mainz threat (like TTL), and what one sees is that Prussia, an old enemy of Austria, has just inflicted a great defeat on Austria while France, which has recently been fighting Austria a lot, watches. Once one takes away the artificial, retrospective perception of inevitability that Prussia was going to fight France as the next step in some master plan to unify Germany, this doesn't particularly look like a recipe for "Prussia and France must then be hostile to each other". They are two great powers, both of which have more reason to be hostile to Austria than to each other.
and not sit around attempting to make an alliance with the Tsar. (While not impossible, the icy relationship and territorial combat taking place in the East is a bone of contention between both parties)
I certainly don't dispute that Anglo-Russian relations are decidedly
not pleasant at this point. Indeed, the Anglo-Russian alliance of OTL was a fluke.
However, that could change. The alliances of this period were very fluid even in OTL; in TTL, with two of the great constants of European diplomacy (Franco-German enmity and Austro-German amity) vanished, they will be even more so.
On this same vein of subject, Italy, with the intention of holding both the Papal States and the coveted Austrian territories in the region, would be overwhelmingly supportive of any power that stands against both of these two countries. The drive for an Italian-British partnership would be extremely strong, on the Italian side, as it offers them one of the few alliances that could threaten both of these countries, but it does indeed put them in a very awkward position moving forward.
Why precisely is the United Kingdom likely to support Italy against Austria? (Also, Italy doesn't yet
have the papal states, and isn't likely to while the French Second Empire stands.) The only reason I can imagine is if Austria were pro-Russian, and even then the British would probably stay neutral. Splendid isolation would not end without good reason. An existing Franco-North German alliance would undoubtedly be scary enough to end it (two great powers positioned such as to make the Channel ports likely to fall to them, plus France's colonial position), as would an OTL-esque Franco-Russian alliance (due to the general vast overestimation of Russia, plus France's position on the Channel and France's colonial position); an Austro-French alliance would not be.
And why is the United Kingdom likely to attempt to weaken or distract Imperial France when in OTL it sought the opposite: a strong France in alliance with the United Kingdom and able to focus on the Russian threat? (To that end Disraeli lamented the unification of Germany in OTL on the basis that it prevented the French from being able to concentrate on Russia, and thus strengthened Russia's hand against the United Kingdom.)
For Austria, their enemies would remain to be North Germany and Italy, but should there be a lack of Franco-N. German partnership, they could very well become allies of France to oppose the North Germans and the Italians. This avenue would bring us to a French-Austrian alliance and a N. German-Italian alliance almost by default of one another. The two key factors on the outskirts of this being the Tsar and the United Kingdom, both of whom would have their own pragmatic reasons for supporting one side or the other.
Hmmhmm.
The big thing I see is that you seem to be leading us towards some supposed rigid system of alliances as is alleged to have existed in OTL, leading up to an alt-First World War; but the problem is that in truth that
didn't exist in OTL; European diplomatic alignments were far more fluid than that. The Franco-Russian Alliance, for example, was initially directed as much against the United Kingdom as against Germany, and even included provisions for how Franco-Russian forces should be organised to the defeat of the British Empire; it was created in an environment where Anglo-German partnership was widely believed. The United Kingdom deliberately sought alliances with both Russia and France not out of fear of Germany but out of the wish to dismantle this threat, as the relevant British decision-makers in question thought of the Russian threat as a very great threat; the British, like many in this era, dramatically overestimated the strength of the Russian Empire and the threat it posed to them, even after the Russo-Japanese War should have taught them better. The Anglo-Russian Convention was an exceedingly uncomfortable partnership which would almost certainly have dissolved in 1915 if the First World War hadn't erupted when it did. British decision-makers were nowhere near as worried about the German navy, which they consistently outnumbered by an extremely great degree, as popular history would suggest; they certainly recognised it as the biggest naval threat in Europe but didn't hugely. There were attempts at Anglo-German rapprochement just a few years before the war began. The Ottoman Empire going to war on the German side was to a great extent due to British high-handedness rather than some fixed alliance bloc. The Balkan states (by which I principally mean Greece, Bulgaria, Romania and Serbia) shifted their allegiances multiple times and had factions supporting various alignments. There were powerful people in France who thought of the United Kingdom as more of an enemy than Germany. Even the Franco-Russian Alliance wasn't unshakeable; at one point the Russian and German emperors even signed an alliance together, though their officials didn't agree and quietly buried it. And as I have argued earlier, in TTL diplomatic alignments will be even
more fluid than in OTL, not less.
I don't object to there being some sort of major European war along the lines of the First World War, as long as there isn't the (false) suggestion that it would be because of rigid alliance blocs. In this case, where I understand that there will not be an extremely long and detailed description (quite understandably), an approach of "less is more"—merely detailing who is siding with whom at the beginning of the war, and why, without examining the inevitable shifts and dances of diplomacy beforehand—would be better than an approach of "so this event caused (e.g.) France to sign an alliance with (e.g.) Austria in 1895, and then they were allied for the next
x years until the war broke out; and this event caused (e.g.) the United Kingdom to sign an alliance with (e.g.) Italy in 1902, and they were allied for the next
y years until the war broke out"
et cetera. The latter approach is popular, but lazy; it's not how the real world worked. What I would object to is the impression that there are long-lasting, rigid diplomatic alignments created by one alliance signed on paper at one time, because European diplomacy was a lot more complicated than that.
On the more specific point of French policy, although Austria obviously has an interest in allying itself with France against both North Germany and Italy (France's traditional ally against Austria), it's difficult to see what is good for France in making North Germany and Italy enemies of France, unless Austria looks like it would beat them anyway. We don't need hypotheticals to know what Imperial France was interested in conquering; we already know that Napoleon III's government wanted to seize Luxembourg and the Palatinate. France would ally itself with Austria if it felt that such an alliance would be useful to those ends, but not otherwise. From an author's perspective it does make the diplomacy "neat" to have Imperial France and Austria, the two powers Italy wants something from, on the same side, but there's no reason why France should desire this; on the contrary OTL Imperial French behaviour was pro-Italian and anti-Habsburg, and it would be to France's advantage to focus Italian nationalist ire on Austria rather than the papal states. (Of course, that's not to say that Italy would necessarily do what France wanted it to, just as France wouldn't necessarily do what Austria wanted it to.)
Regardless, I can attest that this timeline lacks the Franco-Prussian War (as we know it), and this will be explained in the next chapter (albeit briefly). The evolution of European alliances, however, will only be mentioned in passing, and only when it has some sort of tangible influence on the Confederate States. A detailed look at European History, however, would be the subject of a completely different timeline within the same universe. It is not something I would rule out, and I am wholly open to writing one upon the completion of this timeline.
It's absolutely fair enough to focus on the Confederate States given the circumstances of the timeline; as for what little I do request, see above.