Was France punished too harshly after Napoleon?

Faeelin

Banned
France was forced to cede its natural boundaries, pay reparations, and was occupied for several years by the victorious powers. After Napoleon was overthrown, should the allies have left France with the Rhineland and Belgium?
 
It would have defeated the purpose of Congress of Vienna, that was about restoring pre-revolutionnary order. France was to be put back to his Ancien Régime borders in order to stress that and the victory of reactionary powers (Prussia, Russia, Austria) in Europe.

Furthermore in 1815, and critically after the 100 days, France wasn't really able to impose its terms, having irremediably lost but proven again that it could wage war relativly easily on its neighbours (even without real hope of definitive victory). At this point, it was about containing this potential.
 
It wasn't punished harsh enough.

They weren't even restored to their pre-war borders entirely.

In comparison to Versailes, the term France got were a joke at best.

While for the times back then they may have seemed just, they were soft compared to the peace treaties that came after it.
 
How do you figure?

To clarify (becaue of my bad formulation in the previous post), I don't think they should have been punished more or harder. Maybe even less in terms of occupation. But the from the loss of territories, Reperations and arms regulations (not existant) the Treatie of Versailes was basic Butt-Rape.

The France attacked even morce countries in Europe then Germany in WWI, annexed more territories and Installed puppets all over the place. In my opinion they did more damage than Germany in WWI.

That's why I think, if people see the treatie of Versailles as just, then the peace terms France got were unjust because they were less harsh than the Versailles terms.


But without comparisson, the terms were ok.
 
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Grey Wolf

Donor
France got a better deal in 1814 than it did in 1815. There was further added punishment after the 100 Days

Best Regards
Grey Wolf
 

Beer

Banned
France was forced to cede its natural boundaries, pay reparations, and was occupied for several years by the victorious powers. After Napoleon was overthrown, should the allies have left France with the Rhineland and Belgium?
The Rhineland and Belgium the NATURAL borders of France? What stuff do you smoke?
France got not more than a slap on the hand in Vienna, unlike what over the top farce France forced on Germany roughly a century later.
 
France got not more than a slap on the hand in Vienna, unlike what over the top farce France forced on Germany roughly a century later.

Partially because, unlike Germany and its allies during WW1, Napoleonic France didn't resorted to ethnic cleansing, use of prisoners as human shields or task forces, and because Napoleonic Wars didn't ended with part of Germany looking alike surface of the moon, or depleted industrial regions as much it was possible.

Let's compare what's comparable : Vienna was clearly clement for France, not because of a particular liking of it or thanks to Talleyrand's skills (that certainly played), but because the goal of the Congress was to return to a pre-revolutionarry situation as much it was possible while containing France thanks to buffer kingdoms (Piemont, Netherlands) and close presence of great powers (Prussia) at their borders.

Another point making a Versailles comparison irrelevant, is that fact it was an ideological peace : Louis XVIII was seen as an ally that needed his lands backs to deal with the extinction of revolution. It wasn't a war/peace against France specifically, but a war against revolutionnary principles.

One could say, furthermore, that Vienna powers wanted to avoid radicalizing french population against Bourbons or the Congress too much, critically when there was a clear tendency to pro-monarchism after 1814, to prevent making it an endless nest of troubles.

The Rhineland and Belgium the NATURAL borders of France? What stuff do you smoke?
It was the common expression for the era. "Natural borders" meant Rhine, Alps and Pyrénées as french borders. Don't excit yourself too much on historical and in-context expression.
 

Beer

Banned
Other difference france got attacked after the revolition, WW1 Germany was the clear aggressor
Ah, the centennial draws near and the "Entente can do no wrong" agitators crawl out from under the stones again. How about reading "The Sleepwalkers" for a start or some other books to see that your statement is either propaganda or for the rubbish can.
 
But the from the loss of territories, Reperations and arms regulations (not existant) the Treatie of Versailes was basic Butt-Rape.
No. The Germans only had to pay 50 billion, which was 1 billion less than they proposed themselves. In total it was 132 billion but those other 82 billion were B and C bonds that only existed to deceive the French public into thinking the Germans were harshly punished. They could've paid it if they wanted to, but they didn't want to.
 

Beer

Banned
From which cellar did you save the rotting propaganda stuff? Might be worth something for a museum.
Napoleonic France was no saint either - or the Entente, just for the record! You are simply trying to justify an overly harsh dictat forced on Germany with old propaganda, while France for igniting the 19th century equivalent of a world war got a lenient peace.
 

Beer

Banned
No. The Germans only had to pay 50 billion, which was 1 billion less than they proposed themselves. In total it was 132 billion but those other 82 billion were B and C bonds that only existed to deceive the French public into thinking the Germans were harshly punished. They could've paid it if they wanted to, but they didn't want to.
You are truly believing this (self-censored)? Newsflash: Germany paid back the whole reparations (which any economist without an interest in letting the entente look like saints could tell you were too much for an early 20th century economy) just a few years back. So no Germany only paid few reparations, we paid all.
 
Ah, the centennial draws near and the "Entente can do no wrong" agitators crawl out from under the stones again. How about reading "The Sleepwalkers" for a start or some other books to see that your statement is either propaganda or for the rubbish can.

To be fair, while nobody particularly bothered to prevent the war starting once it looked like it was going to, Germany certainly did encourage Austria to demand nothing else than unconditional acceptance of all terms of the demand, and it had been the strategic thinking for a while (certainly since at least 1912) that they needed a war with Russia sooner rather than later before they could industrialise and eliminate the mobilisation gap.

This isn't to say that Russia or France in particular didn't have their own reasons to want a war against Austria/Germany, but I view that as more 'allowing the situation to become all-out war when it didn't need to be' whereas I view Germany's actions as being 'encouraging the situation to move from major diplomatic incident to war'.
 
No. France had a relatively decent deal in 1814. Then they decided to go back to war less than a year later, which proved that in order for Europe to be stable, France could not be allowed to get too powerful. I'd say the Congress of Vienna was fair.
 

Beer

Banned
While I can accept your view on the situation, I have to stress that Serbia was what we would call a Rogue State today and did anything it it´s power to make a diplomatic solution impossible. Considering the political realities in the early 20th century, forcing Serbia to compliance was a normal action at the time, not what the Entente later blew out of proportion to camouflage their own less than sterling behaviour.
To it bluntly, had Britain be in the position of Austria and Germany, London would have done the same. So I disagree with your weighting of the actors.
 
Another point making a Versailles comparison irrelevant, is that fact it was an ideological peace : Louis XVIII was seen as an ally that needed his lands backs to deal with the extinction of revolution. It wasn't a war/peace against France specifically, but a war against revolutionnary principles.

One could say, furthermore, that Vienna powers wanted to avoid radicalizing french population against Bourbons or the Congress too much, critically when there was a clear tendency to pro-monarchism after 1814, to prevent making it an endless nest of troubles.
In hindsight i have to question whether that actually worked though. Which raises the question if the option of a harsher peace might have been preferred by the rest of Europe in hindsight.
 
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From which cellar did you save the rotting propaganda stuff? Might be worth something for a museum.

Ethnic cleansing (unless you think it never happened, or that it was all a misunderstanding due to war, as Turkey does)

Mistreatment of prisoner of wars


Harsh policy of occupation, including slaughter of civilians
and huge requisition and dismentelement of the industrial regions

The occupied area included much of France’s coal and steel industry, and the Germans profited from these industries by sending the sophisticated machinery and equipment back to Germany or by destroying the equipment to keep the French from benefiting from it.
The French civilians, in turn, sabotaged what they could. The Germans kept detailed records of the goods available in the occupied areas, especially when it came to food and livestock.
Du Thoit records that farmers gave their eggs and other goods away to keep them from being requisitioned. It was often forbidden to slaughter livestock or do simple tasks such as make butter without permission, ensuring that the German occupiers would have adequate supplies. To make matters worse, French civilians were often forced to feed and care for German soldiers billeted in their homes.[14] The added stress of sharing living spaces with the enemy only served to worsen the general atmosphere of the occupied zone.

War crimes : Belgium,

The war crimes of August 1914 in the 1920s were often dismissed as British propaganda. In recent years a new generation of scholars has thoroughly examined the original documents and found that large-scale atrocities were committed.

Starting in 1915, the German authorities put in place a system of camps, nearly three hundred in all, and did not hesitate to resort to denutrition, punishments and psychological mobbing; incarceration was also combined with methodical exploitation of the prisoners. This prefigured the systematic use of prison camps on a grand scale during the 20th century.

While Entente was certainly not a saint, Germany and its allies did commited war crimes and actions that called for an harsh treatment. (That Versailles was a fit harsh treatment is another debate)

Napoleonic France was no saint either - or the Entente, just for the record! You are simply trying to justify an overly harsh dictat forced on Germany with old propaganda, while France for igniting the 19th century equivalent of a world war got a lenient peace.
I'm not justifying anything. I just point out how idiotic is to compare Versailles and Vienna, when they're not comparable regarding not only what these congress tried to achieve (ideologically or politically), but how the war happened in first place.

Cut out with personal attacks, if you're not able to, don't participe to an overall polite discussion.
 
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