Kenneth Moure "The Gold Standard Illusion"
The chapter is titled "The Worm in the Fruit, 1914–1920", pages 28-40 in the edition I have.
Thank you, although I was referring to the other book you cited.
My dear History Lerner, you have gone into great lengths to state that Britain would not be able to get oil. I respectfully disagree with your view.
So, in a senario that the US government lets JP Morgan along with dozens of banks and hundreds of other companies go bankrupt and stops every shipment to the battling Entente, do you honestly believe that the British wouldn't import oil owned by british firms in Mexico? I give up. It is not a contest here and I won't argue anymore.
Okay, first and foremost, your citation to this point has been about French Gold Reserves in 1916/1917; nothing within that addresses whether or not Britain would still be solvent after April of 1917. Now, with respect to the point at hand, I have by now repeatedly stated that loans up to that date had been backed with collateral, so that in the event of an Entente default such assets would prevent U.S. bankruptcies. No doubt there would be a recession due to the collapse in war time orders, but this too would certainly be less than what occurred IOTL 1919 and something the U.S. had clearly indicated it was willing to absorb.
Finally, as Mikestone8 has repeatedly pointed out, in late 1916 Congress passed legislation specifically giving the President the power to target British commerce and, further, in January of 1917 Wilson and the Federal Reserve were indicating they would not allow unsecured loans to take place. If that was not enough to trigger Britain,
what would?
Pearson was a cold bloodied capitalist and I consider him trying to be a war profiteer for trying to get the british government pay him millions for his wells. So he used the possibility of american dominance in mexican oil as a threat. In any case the company was sold only after the war to Shell.
Standard Oil of New Jersey was in the process of the transaction, so it wasn't an idle threat. I think this also explains why Britain acted the way they did towards the United States in late 1916/early 1917: they had no other choice. While Pearson may have had the largest oil concession in Mexico, the U.S. at large,
American firms were overall the largest investors/controllers of Mexican oil. Given Section 807 of the 1916 Revenue Act, London knew the United States could really hammer them if they tried to act untoward American interests within Mexico.
Finally, as already hinted at, even if they did import Mexican oil, it would not be enough; Anglo-French-Italian consumption for 1918 was over 9 million tons, almost equal to the entirety of Mexican production. Given the U.S. stake was majority there, it would've been impossible to import enough from Mexico for such to occur.
The political situation in Mexico made british investments in Mexico less appealing. So what? The british government had already imposed restrictions to Pearson so that he cannot sell the company. Nobody sane in the government would spend millions to buy out Pearson in Mexico, with or without instability.
Even if we assume an insolvent Britain could prevent such, and I doubt it given the U.S. could pressure Mexico into doing such to aid existing Entente collateral to cover their (British) imbalance, Pearson's share of Mexican output is insufficient to cover Entente needs and the Mexicans, nor the United States, have any reason to sell oil without payment from the UK.
As CalBear stated, by 1917 the States had chosen a side. And what literature tells us is that the Entente nations still had resources and assets.
I have provided literature on the topic. I am not going to further continue this debate just for the sake of it.
As has been pointed out by me and others, the notion the United States had chose a side is without merit; Section 807 and Wilson's/Federal Reserve's movement to cut off unsecured loans preemptively emphatically show such. Likewise, I've yet to see any evidence the Entente had any resources left. One can quibble with Devlin's assessments, but when the man is able to cite British Treasury reports from November of 1916 saying that they would be insolvent after April, it's pretty hard to find a retort of merit.
As for the specific case of France, as brought up you and
@NoMommsen, Devlin cites France was spending over £40,000,000 every six months as of November. In effect, if France exhausted every portion of her remaining gold holdings, from November of 1916 onwards, she would run out sometime in the first half of 1918 at the latest. The problem therein, however, is that this would've entailed the collapse in the faith of the Franc and the French economy as a whole, as runs on the banking system had been a very serious problem from 1914. To do this strategy would've entailed public panic and high inflation rates which, as we know from Nazi Germany in WWII, can doom a war economy.