AHC: Avoid British Comparative Decline of 1870's

I'm also curious -- assuming Britain manages to maintain a higher rate of growth than Germany until at least 1890, maybe by keeping an edge in key industries, how does that affect politics in Europe? For example, would that make WWI less likely?
 
How about

Britain really pushes free trade and the other nations are persuaded to adopt it.. this enables some threatened industries to remain their competativeness in the global market place...
Also, there is a possibility of Government, slim admitedly, of bringing in some of exchange controls, and trying to persaude UK capital to invest more in British Industry (or Imperial?) rather than fostering overseas competitors - however, some of the Governments oversea aid was used to build railroads etc using British sourced material (South America especially), so more of this kind could be done?
 
If we work on the assumption that an investment in industrial machinery provides at least a limited fix to the decline issue, then providing an incentive to invest is obviously necessary. Prior to 1965 companies were taxed under the same rules as individuals. But what if Robert Lowe, the chancellor in 1868-1873- and, incidentally, the man who created modern company law- had proposed a change to the income tax regime to allow companies to deduct the cost of machinery purchased from their chargeable profits?

It's not entirely unrealistic, given that Lowe reforms taxes in various other ways, and it's simplistic enough to be plausible as a Victorian reform (as opposed to the convoluted nightmare of capital allowances we have today). There should be little problem funding it given that 1870-1874 saw the government run surpluses each year and drop the rate of income tax to boot. On the other hand, it's an entirely hindsight-driven suggestion and, given that the rate of tax was 4d in the pound, might not be enough of an incentive for business-owners to plough money into machinery.
 
Certainly points to consider, but I still have doubts.

For example, is there any way Britain could have responded to the Panic by stimulating demand as opposed to supply readjustment?

And I'm still curious, of the industries where Britain did lose an edge, could they have plausibly kept?

How do you propose that Britain do this? We're talking about the 1870s - the government has virtually no levers to pull to stimulate demand, and if they did, they'd upset the balance of payments, which would eat away at Britain's financial supremacy.
 
How do you propose that Britain do this? We're talking about the 1870s - the government has virtually no levers to pull to stimulate demand...

I'll admit, my understanding of this is a little hazy -- could they, for example, steer colonies to establish even more favorable trading status toward Mother England?

... and if they did, they'd upset the balance of payments, which would eat away at Britain's financial supremacy.

Philjd had a point on this earlier...

Also, there is a possibility of Government, slim admitedly, of bringing in some of exchange controls, and trying to persaude UK capital to invest more in British Industry (or Imperial?) rather than fostering overseas competitors...

I'm wondering just how big the downside of skimping on "financial supremacy" is when it's done as a way of strengthening economic fundamentals.

Granted, that may be one of those things that makes more sense in hindsight...:rolleyes:
 
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