WI: The United States gave France the Indian Reserve Following the American Revolution?

So, France gave the US a LOT of help during the American Revolution, to the point where it put France in debt. France also used to control the land west of the Proclamation Line of 1763, as part of New France. So let's say as a sort of repayment, the US gives it back, effectively limiting American settlers to land east of the Appalachians. Would this have been plausible at the time? Would it have led to better treatment of the Natives, being in French territory rather than American? Would France even be interested in the land?
 
So, France gave the US a LOT of help during the American Revolution, to the point where it put France in debt. France also used to control the land west of the Proclamation Line of 1763, as part of New France. So let's say as a sort of repayment, the US gives it back, effectively limiting American settlers to land east of the Appalachians. Would this have been plausible at the time? Would it have led to better treatment of the Natives, being in French territory rather than American? Would France even be interested in the land?
France had been horridly in debt long before the American Revolution, that was just what put it over the edge

Part of the reason for the Revolution was that the British prevented the Colonists from settling there. Many of the leading figures of the Revolution had land claims there. There were already lots of American settlers there. Them giving it away to France is incredibly unlikely
 
If France doesn't end up colonizing the land themselves (driving away the inhabitants nicely or not-nicely) then they also won't spend any money to stop the Americans from doing it.
 

Schnozzberry

Gone Fishin'
I'm not sure how well such a swap would work logistically. With Florida returning to Spain, the territory west of the Proclamation Line was landlocked. Practically speaking, the only way for France to reach the territory would be through the Mississippi River, which could make it almost impossible for France to control in the event of a break between Spain and France.
 
A large part of the push to take that land from was France in the first place was on behalf of the American colonists, who expected it to be opened for settlement. Now that they have it I can't see why they would immediately turn around and give it to France.

Still, stranger things have happened, but I just don't see how this one does.
 
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