WI the Republic of Texas remained independent

herricks

Giysqun Wilde said:
http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/8/8c/Primera_Republica_Federal_1825.PNG
Things have changed in the last two years. I doubt you had Jews in San Fransisco back then, unlike now.
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last 2 year? i was born in texas & my family has been here since the late 1800's whatever changes your talking about happening here in the last 2 years i've lived through them.

& what are you talking about jews in San Fransisco? ive only knowingly met 1 jew & i've never even been 2 california
 

King Midas

Rooster Cogburn said:
As for race relations, that can go a lot of ways too. In Texas, there would be three main races: Whites, Blacks, and Mexicans. So there would be a race on top (the Whites), one on the bottom, and one in the middle. The one on the bottom wouldn't be able to vote, would get the terrible jobs, and for a long time they would either be slaves or a cheap workforce with no rights, depending on how you go. The ones in the middle, would see some better treatment. Not as good as whites, but they'd probably have most rights, they could testify in court, maybe vote, etc. ...
So what does everybody think?
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I believe you would have four races: The Indians were still a factor in this era.

As to who's on top, it depends on the POD. The first year of the revolution wasn't quite so Anglo vs Mexicano as the second. The war started over taxes (sound familiar?) and was something of a disagreement between Mexico City and El Norte about exactly what the current constitution meant.

Not having money, but having plenty of land, the revolutionaries hit upon paying their troops in acres. So the second year of the war had a larger number of anglic soldiers/homesteaders. IMO if the war had been settled in 1835, there would have been a lot smaller Anglic demographic, with all the effects that would have on the discussion.
 
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