Sigismund Vasa was trying to make throne hereditary but his efforts actually weakened the country.The Polish Estates could elect any king they wanted, but naturally many of their kings (and plenty of Poles, followers of current political thought) were unhappy with that. So the real question is, which king of Poland would be successful, powerful, or convincing enough to con (or force) the Sejm to make his succession hereditary?
I'd like it to be the Vasa, but don't mind me, I'm just a fanboy.
At that time most countries were thougt more like property of the rulling dinasties while the republic meant this is property of citizens (szlachta)Well "Rzeczpospolita" actually means "republic" (though only used for Poland), so ultimately it's having a king that's really weird.
Those who owned tiny farms still were wealthy enoughRegarding the percentage of Polish population allowed to call themselves noble this was because there was no land qualification, and no diminution of noble status over generations. IIRC all sons of a noble were noble, and thus all sons of their sons were noble and so on. I remember it being explained to me that a lot of the Polish nobles worked tiny farms liked the smallest peasant, but were still proud of their noble status
Best Regards
Grey Wolf
I think then, that if the Rzeczpospolita were to survive to the current day, the trend would be away from hereditary monarchs, not towards it. The Sejm was powerful and more than capable of maintaining that power (at least internally), and I don't think they would ever consent to the creation of a hereditary dynasty. Indeed, I think by 2007 the system would be much more democratic, with a representative Sejm electing a sort of King-President hybrid (perhaps for a term, or perhaps for life).
Abandoning all their powers forever to a foreigner seems foolish and unlikely.
Indeed; large problem in the XVIII century was the so called "gołota" (derived from polish word goły meaning naked) - nobles not possessing even their own farms, instead living at the cost of rich nobility and selling them their votes which weighted just as much as this of any other noble (constitution of 3rd May took away the right to vote from them and it was definitly a good thing at the time).Those who owned tiny farms still were wealthy enough
Just a thought that needs clearification; Do the Piasts have any chance to be elected?
Just a thought that needs clearification; Do the Piasts have any chance to be elected?
Or if he died earlier-just after battle of Vienna, in the fame of victor-no one would refuse crown for his son Jakub-IOTL When John Sobieski died actions of Peter the Great and Frederic Augustus of Saxony prevented James Sobieski from taking the crown, (it was first time when son of previous monarch was not elected-PLC was de facto hereditary monarchy long after first free election-for example Vasas were elected because they were descendants of Jagiellon kings in female line), in 1683 Peter was not in position to enforce Poles to not choose James Sobieski for king. Imagine that later James join swedish side in Great Northern War-with polish help Swedes crushed Russia, Peter is defeated, Poland-Lithuania regained teritorries lost in Andruszów Peace in 1667, That victory should give enough prestige for Sobieski family to estabilish new dinasty, and save Poland.For what it's worth, I think the last best chance to make the change was in John Sobieski's reign, especially if he could have lived for an additional 10-15 years.