Julius Vogel said:1. The size of the peace time army and the size of the colours/reservists as compared to the neighbouring countries (the UK/France in this case, rather than say Russia, which was much bigger)
Seems just like a natural state of being to me; Germany has a larger population than either France or Britain (not counting their colonial subjects), and thus can sustain larger armies than them. Same with Russia, which had a larger population than Germany and in turn apparently also the largest army out of all the powers.
It's true that Imperial Germany was more authoritarian than France or Britain, but from what I understand they were still a shining beacon of democracy compared to Tsarist Russia.2. The fact that the state was subordinate to the Kaiser, rather than the other way around. So his position of Commander in Chief etc was more real than say the head of state for France or Britain/UK
France and Russia IIRC also had rather sizeable fleets despite being land-based powers. Is it really any different for Germany just because they decided to jump on the bandwagon later than the others?3. The fact that Germany had late in the piece decided to develop a large, capable battle fleet in addition to the large, capable army (both sufficient to challenge Britain or France)
IIRC there was a lot of popular support in Germany for the enlargement of the Navy by the middleclass, because it had little chances of advancement within the army beyond a certain level. Other than that I'd suspect Germany had the same lobbies of industrialists hoping to make a fortune off government contracts as pretty much every other country did/does.4. The various popular lobby leagues that developed in Germany to support the growth of the Navy and Army. I do understand that there were lobbies in Britain/France for both services, but I do not think that they were anywhere near as widespread as Germany (would need to check this)
I admit this seems to be the most compelling argument so far. Was it different in Russia, though?5. The independent nature of the military services in Germany, compared to the UK/Britain. IIRC the services had a huge degree of control over doctrine, purchasing and budget that was independent of the civilian government and largely only answerable to the Kaiser. This is quite distinct from the UK, where despite the power of the RN, it was still clearly under the thumb of Westminster. In the German situation the military was almost a separate branch of the state, rather than say subsidiary to the civilian head of government.
So in other words the Germans could have paid the extortion money but chose instead to finance a military to defend themselves against their oppressors once again?Faeelin said:So in other words the Germans could have paid reparations but chose instead to finance a war machine to try conquering Europe once again?
Funny how perspective works, no? What is perfectly justified to one is a grave injustice to someone else, and vice-versa.
- Kelenas