The German war against Russia in WW2 if Britain had been conquered first?

Deleted member 1487

Congressional authorization is also irrelevant. Given the extreme latitude Presidential powers are given towards the military in war-time, the President could order vessels sent as part of a Anglo-American-Soviet convoy under the pretense of operating alongside the British allies..
Not for LL, that needed congressional authorization. Sure, the president could order the military to do something like what you describe, but the public and media are going to wonder why US servicemen are dying in Europe when they are at peace with Europe; its not a smart political move.


They'll care when Britain gets sucked back into it.
The only way the British are going to get sucked back in is if they pick a fight, then there is the little issue of why the US should support Britain expanding the war into Europe.


And the Nazis have a major ideological interest in not becoming a market for them, hence their pre-war (and wartime) autarky policies.

Expecting the Nazis to suddenly abandon all of their economic and financial policies that date even before the war...
They adopted autarky because of the foreign exchange crisis starting in 1936, they had no choice but to adopt it, not out of desire, but rather necessity. After the blockade ends Germany would be flush with foreign exchange captured in Europe and via reparations in peace deals, so could buy abroad what they wanted instead of spending extra to try and make it at home. I should note that Germany was heavily purchasing from the US right up to September 1st 1939 and several US corporations were in cartels with German ones and aided them in their efforts, such as selling the technology for high performance fuel additives in 1939 to Germany. Germany had business interests in the US too, so would be very eager to renew its business contacts and purchasing arrangements from the pre-war period, especially once they have the cash to buy.


The American First crowd will be gone after Pearl Harbour. They made the decision to disband the same day Hitler decided to declare war on the US.
What would they do without Hitler declaring war and peace in Europe since November 1940? TTL is very different than OTL.


Pretending the US forgets the alliance would be fanciful. As would Hitler bothering to try and disavow it.
Considering it was a defensive alliance and the Axis treaty would probably end up highly modified once the war in Europe was over and greater German-Japanese problems boiled over about the DEI its not likely to be forgotten when the time comes and Hitler cuts ties publicly; the US public is going to be very interested in how Germany reacts to their erstwhile ally attacking the US; Germany cutting ties in response and stopping trade would make an impact, as would Japan attacking Germany's vassal, the Netherlands, holdings in Asia (also France's).

US and Britain are at war with Japan together. There is all the justification needed.
Maybe for us now, but in 1941-42 is the US public going to want to fight another war in Europe that they start?

The US business community will be too busy counting their profits from the US war effort.
Those profits end when Japan is defeated, Germany would remain in control of Europe and still require long term trade, so they would also be looking at their long term profits, not just wartime ones.

Not if British warships stop them.
If they fired the first shots then Britain is the aggressor and have to deal with its own public about why its restarting the war in Europe and why its putting British sailors in harms way for the Soviets when there is already a war on in Asia.


Sure they will, given that they know American support will soon follow. All they need is the right excuse... like a German attack on British shipping.
That's not guaranteed at all. They may wish it were, but the US can let Britain fight its parallel war and still requires the US congress to be willing to DoW Germany, which is not that likely if Britain is the one picking the fight.


They'll be more concerned about the prospect of Germany prevailing over the USSR since they lack the appropriate appreciation of Soviet strength. By the time it becomes apparent the Soviets could conquer Eastern Europe, it will be rather too late.
Britain is not going to be ready to fight in 1941 again so soon after cutting a deal in 1940, especially given that IOTL their army wasn't recovered from Dunkirk until 1942; by 1942 the Soviets have demonstrated they could hang in, so Britain has a lot less interest in getting immediately involved and Japan is now the main focus. If we accept that part of the PoD is that the Dunkirk evacuation is a failure and Britain doesn't get LL until after Japan attacks, they will in no way be ready to resume the war before they get LL both due to having to rebuild the BEF from scratch and then getting the money to pay for it, because they were pretty close to insolvency by late 1940 IOTL.

Not when the British make it clear to them that they'll return when they are ready.
Yes, because otherwise they go into permanent exile until the British are ready to resume the fight and its clear they cannot liberate Europe without US help. In 1940 none of that would be apparently possible, so the Dutch leadership are wise enough to cut a deal provided Germany makes guarantees that they will not turn over the DEI to Japan, which was the Queen's major sticking about trying to negotiate a peace deal; with Britain leaving the war anything she says is moot to her exiled allies, who now have an 'everyman for themselves' mentality. Who can trust what Britain says about the future at that point, especially when she is so weak and probably worse off assuming that Churchill is not in charge and the BEF was captured at Dunkirk (I'm assuming as part of the POD).
 
but the public and media are going to wonder why US servicemen are dying in Europe when they are at peace with Europe; its not a smart political move.

Wrong. They'll go "the Germans attacked our ships? Well then it's war!"

Why the Germans attacked the ships doesn't really matter any more then it did with the Reuben James or in 1917.

The only way the British are going to get sucked back in is if they pick a fight, then there is the little issue of why the US should support Britain expanding the war into Europe.
Because soon the Germans are shooting at American vessels escorting British convoys. And American vessels getting attacked by German submarines while hunting Japanese submarines in the Atlantic! And good American pilots helping the good British pilots "train" getting attacked by the Luftwaffe.

Calbear had fun with this one in a thread where you tried a similarly themed argument here:

What would happen is that the USN would start aggressive patrol of the Atlantic, prosecuting to kill, any submarine contact. Why? Any sub could be Japanese (they are a tricky lot, those Japanese, look at Pearl Harbor). All a sub has to do is surface before it is in attack range of a U.S. convoy, so its nationality can be established, don't you know, and remain there until the U.S. convoy has passed by, and no shots will be fired by U.S. vessels. Can't make any promises about the odd RN or RCN ship that might be around, but the U.S. ships won't fire.

It is also obviously necessary to escort any U.S. flagged ship all the way to the UK

They adopted autarky because of the foreign exchange crisis starting in 1936, they had no choice but to adopt it, not out of desire, but rather necessity.
And here we go again, dismissing Nazi ideology and all the talk of "Mitteleurope" and a "third way" and everything...

In reality, the Germans won't buy anything from the US in 1940-mid 1941 because everything they need they are getting from the Soviets and by the time they realize their existing stocks are not going to be enough, too late! Japan's bombed Pearl Harbor and the US can't spare anything from it's war effort. And arming the British. And helping the Sov-nevermind, that detail isn't important Mr. German Ambassador.

What would they do without Hitler declaring war and peace in Europe since November 1940?
No evidence that Hitler's declaration of war influenced their decision to disband. In fact, if there is peace in Europe in November 1940, then TTL they likely wind-up disbanding earlier. And have no incentive to reform after Pearl Harbor destroys isolationist sentiment in the US. So talk about a non-starter then.

Maybe for us now, but in 1941-42 is the US public going to want to fight another war in Europe that they start?
They wouldn't have started it. It would be a clear case of German aggression against British shipping. At least that is how it will play out in the newsreels.

Those profits end when Japan is defeated,
And Germany. But then that's war, you know.

If they fired the first shots then Britain is the aggressor
Not in the newsreels they aren't! War time censorship is an amazing thing.

Britain is not going to be ready to fight in 1941 again so soon after cutting a deal in 1940, especially given that IOTL their army wasn't recovered from Dunkirk until 1942;
Except for the minor fact they know the US will be in shortly after them. Problem solved.

If we accept that part of the PoD is that the Dunkirk evacuation is a failure
Prisoners and equipment returned as part of peace deal.

In 1940 none of that would be apparently possible, so the Dutch leadership are wise enough to cut a deal provided Germany
Why are the Nazis abandoning their ideology again? And why would they trust Hitler after all those treaty violations again?

Who can trust what Britain says about the future at that point
The British have a precedent of signing a temporary peace to re-enter a war later. And Hitler has a precedent of violating every deal he makes. And the Dutch are considered sufficiently close to the Volksdeutch as to be capable of being Germanized, according to Nazi ideology, and thereby are eligible for annexation into the Reich.
 
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Deleted member 1487

Wrong. They'll go "the Germans attacked our ships? Well then it's war!"

Why the Germans attacked the ships doesn't really matter any more then it did with the Reuben James or in 1917.

Because soon the Germans are shooting at American vessels escorting British convoys. And American vessels getting attacked by German submarines while hunting Japanese submarines in the Atlantic! And good American pilots helping the good British pilots "train" getting attacked by the Luftwaffe.

Calbear had fun with this one in a thread where you tried a similarly themed argument here:
How does this apply when Germany and Britain aren't at war? Why could the USN be escorting British convoys to the USSR? The public is not going to like or understand that, especially when there are safer routes to make deliveries and there is already a war on elsewhere. Germany isn't public enemy #1 anymore once the Japanese conduct Pearl Harbor and poking them when there is already a war on on the other side of the world isn't going to go well. Plus the US media did have a fair bit of leeway to leak stuff, as they did IOTL, including the Morgenthau Plan that scuppered that idea.


And here we go again, dismissing Nazi ideology and all the talk of "Mitteleurope" and a "third way" and everything...
Have you considered that Germany could make source everything it needed from Europe, so had to trade and even with autarkic tendencies they would still have to purchase abroad and try and strengthen trade ties for political reasons? Also all that talk perhaps was a means of justifying to the public Hitler's economic policies that bankrupted the nation and required domestic sourcing of ersatz materials instead, so rather that admit fault they just gussied it up as part of their nebulous ideology.

In reality, the Germans won't buy anything from the US in 1940-mid 1941 because everything they need they are getting from the Soviets and by the time they realize their existing stocks are not going to be enough, too late! Japan's bombed Pearl Harbor and the US can't spare anything from it's war effort. And arming the British. And helping the Sov-nevermind, that detail isn't important Mr. German Ambassador.
Why not? The USSR wasn't supplying everything they needed/wanted and its better to start sourcing abroad especially as they stop payments from 1941 on to avoid supplying Stalin in the run up to invasion. Once they invade they won't have Soviet supplies anymore, so its better to work out alternative sources in peace, plus there are benefits to reestablishing trade ties abroad to make it painful to cut them off again for businesses selling to them. Eventually the US can lower its deliveries, but now Germany has occupied Belgium and made peace with them, so the US cutting off trade would cut off German willingness to allow the Belgians to sell Congo rubber to the Allies, which is the only source for natural rubber once the Japanese seize most of East Asia.

No evidence that Hitler's declaration of war influenced their decision to disband. In fact, if there is peace in Europe in November 1940, then TTL they likely wind-up disbanding earlier. And have no incentive to reform after Pearl Harbor destroys isolationist sentiment in the US. So talk about a non-starter then.
They why did you mention that they disbanded immediately after Hitler declared war? Its not like they cannot agitate agains FDR for supporting the USSR against Germany when there was a war against Japan to focus on. They can still find ways to pursue their anti-FDR political agenda and needle him even after Pearl Harbor (perhaps later even because of it).


They wouldn't have started it. It would be a clear case of German aggression against British shipping. At least that is how it will play out in the newsreels.
Perhaps; even if that's the case, why would the US public want to DoW Germany then because they attacked British convoys shipping things to the USSR in a war zone?

And Germany. But then that's war, you know.
Doesn't stop them from agitating against it considering they agree ideologically with Fascism and hate Communism, so support the Fascists against Stalin.

Not in the newsreels they aren't! War time censorship is an amazing thing.

Except for the minor fact they know the US will be in shortly after them. Problem solved.
They didn't know that at all, especially considering that the US is kind of distracted by a war in Asia and of course so are they; beyond that they will remember how the US didn't support them in 1940 against Germany and Churchill is not around to cultivate that special relationship.

Prisoners and equipment returned as part of peace deal.
When has equipment being returned ever been part of a peace deal? Sure PoWs, which given the numbers vs. German PoWs held by Britain would probably end up with Britain paying reparations for their release, limiting their ability to afford to rearm and not necessarily getting the entire BEF back in to go, but equipment if forfeit and if they want back their old stuff they would probably have to pay a mint for it.

Why are the Nazis abandoning their ideology again? And why would they trust Hitler after all those treaty violations again?
What ideology? They cut deals with European powers all the time out of pragmatism. Denmark's government stayed in place the entire war and were even allowed to protect their Jews for a long time, while France was able to keep its fleet and half of its country after the armistice in 1940. They even got back PoWs that were being held and generally were part of the power structure until late 1942. The Dutch and Belgians (and Norwegians) don't have much choice but try and deal and the Dutch government wanted to make peace IOTL, but for Queen Wilhelmina's fears about losing the DEI; that would be a moot point once Britain exits the war and the Dutch would have no reason to believe the 1940 new order would be overturned, so would have to adapt to it.

The British have a precedent of signing a temporary peace to re-enter a war later. And Hitler has a precedent of violating every deal he makes. And the Dutch are considered sufficiently close to the Volksdeutch as to be capable of being Germanized, according to Nazi ideology, and thereby are eligible for annexation into the Reich.
Sure, hundreds of years before. This isn't 1815 anymore. Also there weren't plans to annex the Dutch and had every reason to deal with the existing government to secure their colonial empires and bring it into the trading bloc of the new Axis European order, rather that disrupt it. The plan to break up Belgium wasn't set until around 1942 after things had gone pear-shaped for the Axis and then it became fantasy plans. Here it makes much more sense to co-opt existing governments for the Germans, which exiled governments, especially the Dutch, were planning on.


A final point you dismissed earlier in relations to Barbarossa about the Luftwaffe: tactical airpower. IOTL Germany had 56 Bf110s for Barbarossa, where they did excellent work smashing up Soviet forces; ITTL without the BoB, Mediterranean theater, need to use them for night fighters and garrison Europe, etc. they would have over 500 for use in the East, probably about 10 times more than IOTL. That would be pretty big in terms of buffing out the tactical airpower and air support of the LW. Not only that, but in terms of Ju87s savings from all of the campaign losses of TL they would have at least double if not triple the number of OTL for Barbarossa. Again that is pretty huge in terms of increased tactical air support, as is the number of medium bombers, which would be close to double if not more. Having a LW twice as strong as IOTL on the Eastern Front would make a major difference even if the Soviet's are more prepared, as would all of the extra time to do maintenance, build up airbases and facilities, train new pilots so they wouldn't draw on instructors, rehab returned PoWs, rest their pilots and crews, do repairs, etc. Twice the total airpower and multiple times the tactical bomber forces would make a pretty significant difference. IOTL its not as though the Wehrmacht waltz unopposed through Soviet lines in June and July 1941 IOTL, they had a hard fight and won through much more than just Soviet partial mobilization. There were pretty significant gaps in the lines due to Soviet forces being spread out into multiple echelons, meaning the Axis had numerical superiority at the front, even though they were overall outnumbered; even if the Soviets were fully mobilized only a fraction of their 5 million men would be near the border and in combat, only as the first echelon was destroyed would the second move up and then the third after that. Except now the LW has double the strength to project to every point West of the Dvina-Dniepr, which would impact the ability for supplies to get forward or reinforcements, while disrupting defensive schemes deeper in the USSR.

Edit:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Messerschmitt_Bf_110_operational_history#Eastern_Front
Just 51 air worthy Bf 110s took part in the initial rounds of Operation Barbarossa, and all were from three units; ZG 26, Schnellkampfgeschwader 210 (redesignated from Erprobungsgruppe 210) and ZG 76. The Bf 110 rendered valuable support to the German Army by carrying out strike missions in the face of very heavy anti-aircraft artillery defences. A huge number of ground kills were achieved by Bf 110 pilots in the east. Some of the most successful were Leutnant Eduard Meyer, who received the Knight's Cross of the Iron Cross on 20 December 1941 for 18 aerial victories and 48 aircraft destroyed on the ground, as well as two tank kills. Oberleutnant Johannes Kiel was credited with 62 aircraft destroyed on the ground, plus nine tanks and 20 artillery pieces. He was later credited with a submarine sunk and three motor torpedo boats sunk.[40]

The number of Bf 110s on the Eastern Front declined further during and after 1942. Most units that operated the 110 did so for reconnaissance. Most machines were withdrawn to Germany for the Defense of the Reich operations.

Bf110s were pretty much gone by 1942 from the East due to the need to defend Germany and in the Mediterranean, but with no need for that ITTL, there would be hundreds from 1941 on and would do a lot of damage that they never got a chance to do IOTL; it was a superb light bomber/fighter-bomber up until 1943-44 and could have done a lot had it been around in the East.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schnellkampfgeschwader_210
Some 50 servicable Bf 110s took part in Operation Barbarossa from two units; Zerstörergeschwader 26 and Schnellkampfgeschwader 210. The Bf 110 gave valuable support to the German Army, carrying out strike missions in the face of heavy AA and ground defences. In the opening air strikes, on 22 June, SKG 210 claimed 344 Soviet aircraft destroyed, more than any other unit, for the loss of 7 Bf 110s destroyed and damaged.[1] A large number of ground kills were achieved by these Bf 110 units in the east. SKG 210 flew over the Central part of the front supporting the German army's encirclement and overrunning of Russian land forces in the Białystok and Minsk areas in the early phase of the campaign, and flew in support of the advancing Army Group Centre advance to Moscow in 1941. Between 22 June 1941 and 26 July 1941 the unit claimed to have destroyed 823 Soviet aircraft on the ground and 92 in the air, 2,136 vehicles and 165 tanks destroyed for 57 Bf 110s lost to enemy action.[2]

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Messerschmitt_Bf_110#Armament
The Bf 110's main strength was its ability to accept unusually powerful air-to-air weaponry. Early versions had four 7.92 mm (.312 in) MG 17 machine guns in the upper nose and two 20 mm MG FF/M cannons fitted in the lower part of the nose. Later versions replaced the MG FF/M with the more powerful 20 mm MG 151/20 cannons and many G-series aircraft, especially those which served in the bomber-destroyer role, had two 30 mm (1.18 in) MK 108 cannons fitted instead of the MG 17. The defensive armament consisted of a single, flexibly mounted 7.92 mm (.312 in) MG 15 machine gun.

The Bf 110 G-2/R1 was also capable of accepting armament such as the Bordkanone series 37 mm (1.46 in) BK 3,7 autofed cannon, mounted in a conformal ventral gun pod under the fuselage. A single hit from this weapon was usually enough to destroy any Allied bomber.
Or tank or train as the Ju87G demonstrated from 1943 on.

The fighter-bomber versions could carry up to 2,000 kg (4,410 lb) of bombs, depending on the type.
 
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How does this apply when Germany and Britain aren't at war? Why could the USN be escorting British convoys to the USSR?

Well, the US and Britain are at war against Japan. That is basically reason enough for US ships to tag along with any British convoy.

Have you considered that Germany could make source everything it needed from Europe, so had to trade and even with autarkic tendencies they would still have to purchase abroad and try and strengthen trade ties for political reasons?
Which they never did. German overseas trade plummeted like a rock even before the war began.

Also all that talk perhaps was a means of justifying to the public Hitler's economic policies that bankrupted the nation and required domestic sourcing of ersatz materials instead, so rather that admit fault they just gussied it up as part of their nebulous ideology.
Except the fact that it was part of their ideology from as far back as the 1920s.

The USSR wasn't supplying everything they needed/wanted
It pretty much was. They were able to run their war economy on those stockpiles alone all the way until 1944.
its better to start sourcing abroad especially as they stop payments from 1941 on to avoid supplying Stalin in the run up to invasion.
They never payed and Stalin never said boo. What is suddenly different here?
Once they invade they won't have Soviet supplies anymore,
Yes they will. That is the entire point behind invading the Soviets. Of course, they are wrong but by the time they realize it will be far too late.

so the US cutting off trade would cut off German willingness to allow the Belgians to sell Congo rubber to the Allies,
Belgian government-in-exile says "no".

They why did you mention that they disbanded immediately after Hitler declared war?
I never said that. I said they disbanded the same day Hitler declared war. It is not apparent whether they disbanded before or after the news of the declaration of war reached the US. Their last news statement never indicates any awareness or influence of the declaration.

They didn't know that at all
They would be able to figure it out rather quickly.

Its not like they cannot agitate against FDR for supporting the USSR against Germany when there was a war against Japan to focus on.
Not anywhere near as well as FDR can continue to agitate his anti-German policies.

Perhaps; even if that's the case, why would the US public want to DoW Germany then because they attacked British convoys shipping things to the USSR in a war zone?
Already addressed:

Because soon the Germans are shooting at American vessels escorting British convoys [and in this case this means any British convoys, not just the ones to the USSR]. And American vessels getting attacked by German submarines while hunting Japanese submarines in the Atlantic! And good American pilots helping the good British pilots "train" getting attacked by the Luftwaffe.
Doesn't stop them from agitating against it considering they agree ideologically with Fascism and hate Communism,
They can agitate all they want. It just won't get heard as much.



When has equipment being returned ever been part of a peace deal?
Only peace deal the British are going to accept will be a lenient one. Otherwise it's molon labe. That means the Germans

What ideology?
And here we go, denying that Naziism was an ideology. :rolleyes:

Denmark's government stayed in place the entire war
Pending annexation into the Reich.

and were even allowed to protect their Jews for a long time,
...
Okay, I laughed here. The Danes smuggled all their Jews out of the country to Sweden where the Germans couldn't reach them without invading a yet another neutral state and proving themselves yet more untrustworthy.

while France was able to keep its fleet and half of its country after the armistice in 1940.
Well, they weren't considered part of the Volksdeutsch and in 1942 all of that was tossed out the window anyways.

They even got back PoWs that were being held
No, no they did not.

Sure, hundreds of years before. This isn't 1815 anymore.
Also there weren't plans to annex the Dutch
Sure. Nazi Germany had no policy of reincorporating all of the Volksdeutsch into a single state. Also, the Sudetenland was Hitler's last territorial claim. :rolleyes:

had every reason to deal with the existing government to secure their colonial empires and bring it into the trading bloc of the new Axis European order, rather that disrupt it.
A final point you dismissed earlier in relations to Barbarossa about the Luftwaffe: tactical airpower.
Except none of this change the fact that air power alone is insufficient to create a breakthrough. The Luftwaffe, while providing important fire support, was singularly incapable of breaking the Red Army sufficiently too allow the panzer's to achieve an easy breakthrough. That fell upon the ground forces.

IOTL its not as though the Wehrmacht waltz unopposed through Soviet lines in June and July 1941 IOTL, they had a hard fight and won through much more than just Soviet partial mobilization.
In June, for the most part, actually it was. Soviet resistance suffered immensely from the surprise and confusion in most places. Only a few locales which were not in the immediate path of the German schwerpunkts rallied in time to mount serious defenses. Once the confusion and surprise wore off, German losses spiked immensely and their rate of advance fell.
 
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Deleted member 1487

Well, the US and Britain are at war against Japan. That is basically reason enough for US ships to tag along with any British convoy.
Not to Murmansk.


Which they never did. German overseas trade plummeted like a rock even before the war began.
Due to lack of foreign exchange; they were buying oil abroad right up to September 1939. After the war in Europe ends in 1940 they would have a lot of cash captured from the French and others that they could use to buy abroad again, just as they had throughout the 1930s when they had money to pay for it.

Except the fact that it was part of their ideology from as far back as the 1920s.
Sure, eventually. But they understood what they needed and there were only some things that the rest of the world had, like super cheap high performance aviation fuel.

It pretty much was. They were able to run their war economy on those stockpiles alone all the way until 1944.
No, it was what was captured in 1940 in the West, Soviet deliveries, Axis allied deliveries, and what was captured as they invaded, plus trade with Sweden, Spain (including transshipments from around the world), and Turkey.

They never payed and Stalin never said boo. What is suddenly different here?
Having multiple suppliers, so they don't get too dependent on any one? Pretty commonsensical considering that they were planning an invasion and deliveries would be interrupted for a while even if everything went according to plan.

Yes they will. That is the entire point behind invading the Soviets. Of course, they are wrong but by the time they realize it will be far too late.
Whatever they capture, but the pre-invasion stockpiles were pretty much gone by 1942.


Belgian government-in-exile
Which cuts a deal and comes home when Britain quits. They weren't going to go to the US and continue to 'resist'.


And here we go, denying that Naziism was an ideology. :rolleyes:
It was often not a coherent ideology; it was immensely flexible, such as calling the Japanese Aryans when it was convenient, or rehabilitating the USSR in propaganda when needed.

Pending imminent annexation into the Reich.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Denmar...asing_resistance_after_the_August_1943_crisis
There weren't plans on that during the war AFAIK; the Danish government was dissolved in 1943 after resisting the demands of a Germany being defeated.

...
Okay, I laughed here. The Danes smuggled all their Jews out of the country to Sweden where the Germans couldn't reach them without invading a yet another neutral state and proving themselves yet more untrustworthy.
In late 1943 after the Nazis got very desperate and ran out of Jews to murder in Poland and Russia. They were untouched in Denmark as part of the agreement of 1940 until then:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rescue_of_the_Danish_Jews
Initially the deal with the Danish government held up until the war was clearly being lost and Hitler lashed out to fulfill his racial hatred.

No, no they did not.
Yes, yes they did, just not all of them.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/French_prisoners_of_war_in_World_War_II#Repatriation

Except none of this change the fact that air power alone is insufficient to create a breakthrough. The Luftwaffe, while providing important fire support, was singularly incapable of breaking the Red Army sufficiently too allow the panzer's to achieve an easy breakthrough. That fell upon the ground forces.
In coordinated conjunction with ground power airpower can achieve just that. If there is one thing the Sedan crossing demonstrated it was that airpower could in fact achieve a breakthrough:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Sedan_(1940)#Luftwaffe_assault
Luftflotte 3 (commanded by Hugo Sperrle), supported by Luftflotte 2 (commanded by Albert Kesselring), executed the heaviest air bombardment the world had yet witnessed and the most intense by the Luftwaffe during the war.[44] The Luftwaffe committed two Sturzkampfgeschwader (dive bomber wings) to the assault, flying 300 sorties against French positions, with Sturzkampfgeschwader 77 alone flying 201 individual missions.[45] A total of 3,940 sorties were flown by nine Kampfgeschwader (Bomber Wing) units often in Gruppe strength.[46]
The planned aerial assault would last for eight hours, from 08:00-16:00.[47] Loerzer and Richthofen committed two Stuka units to the attack. Loerzer's Ju 87s flew some 180 missions against Sedan's bunkers whilst Richthofen's managed 90. The nine Kampfgruppen (bomber wings) of Bruno Loerzer's II. Fliegerkorps flew 900 missions against the 360 of Wolfram Freiherr von Richthofen's VIII. Fliegerkorps. VIII. Fliegerkorps '​s total mission count on the Meuse front was 910 compared to II. Fliegerkorps 1,770 missions.[48]
The Luftwaffe '​s target was the Marfee heights which lay behind Sedan to the south east. They contained the fortified artillery positions and dominated the approaches to the strategic and operational depths beyond Sedan and the Meuse.[41] The Luftwaffe was two hours late in appearing but the effort made was considerable. The attacks were made in Gruppe (group) strength and against the line of maximum resistance along the enemy gun line. To restrict enemy movements and communications, German fighters swept the area to cut land-lines and strafe fortifications, with some shooting of radio antennae off command posts. The attacks isolated the forward defence lines.[46] Sturzkampfgeschwader 77 struck first in the morning of 13 May. In just five hours, 500 Ju 87 sorties had been flown.[49]
The Luftwaffe cowed the defenders, breaking them psychologically. The gunners, the backbone of the defences, had abandoned their positions by the time the German ground assault had begun. The cost to the Luftwaffe was just six aircraft, three of which were Ju 87s.[46]

or Sevastapol:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Siege_of_Sevastopol_(1941–42)#Air_offensive
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Siege_of_Sevastopol_(1941–42)#Air-land_operations:_11.E2.80.9315_June
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Siege_...)#Axis_land.2C_sea_and_air_offensive:_29_June

Or the fact that Case Blue was a major offensive against experience, well equipped, prepared Soviet troops closer to their supply lines than they were in 1941 and with the Germans much farther from theirs:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Case_Blue#Opening_phase
Close air support from the Luftwaffe also played an important role in this early success. It contained the Red Air Force, through air superiority operations, and interdiction through attacks on airfields and Soviet defence lines. At times the German air arm acted as a spearhead rather than a support force, ranging on ahead of the tanks and infantry to disrupt and destroy defensive positions. As many as 100 German aircraft were concentrated on a single Soviet division in the path of the spearhead during this phase. General Kazakov, the Bryansk Front's chief of staff, noted the strength and effectiveness of Axis aviation.[25] Within 26 days, the Soviets lost 783 aircraft from the 2nd, 4th, 5th and 8th Air Armies, compared to a German total of 175.[26]


Let's not also forget that despite the front being many times longer than the French campaign, the LW was no bigger in 1941 than it was in 1940 so couldn't conduct the level of air support IOTL 1941 as in 1940; here though it would be twice as big with more than double the CAS aircraft.

In June, for the most part, actually it was. Soviet resistance suffered immensely from the surprise and confusion in most places. Only a few locales which were not in the immediate path of the German schwerpunkts rallied in time to mount serious defenses. Once the confusion and surprise wore off, German losses spiked immensely and their rate of advance fell.
Sources confirming that? Perhaps it was just that the Germans were getting out of the range of their air support and logistics, while the Soviet reserves were coming in, rather than border defenses offering significant resistance.
 
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Deleted member 1487

The only role air supply ever played in Barbarossa was in the relief of the Demyansk Pocket. In terms of sustaining a armored advance, air supply is so inefficient that even the Anglo-Americans in 1944, who had more transport aircraft then the Germans could even dream of, never even bothered trying to sustain an advance with it.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Case_Blue#Opening_phase
Once again, as it had done during the Norwegian Campaign in April 1940, and Barbarossa in 1941, the Luftwaffe's Junkers Ju 52 transport fleet flew in supplies to keep the army going. The situation remained difficult with German troops forced to recover fuel from damaged or abandoned vehicles, and in some cases, leave behind tanks and vehicles with heavy fuel consumption to continue their advance. This undermined the strength of the units, which were forced to leave fighting vehicles behind. Nevertheless, the Luftwaffe flew in 200 tons of fuel per day to keep the army supplied.[29] Despite this impressive performance in keeping the army mobile, Löhr was replaced by the more impetuous and offensive-minded von Richthofen.[30]

In fact the Ju52 fleet was used as a quick supply force and didn't participate in Barbarossa in this role** IOTL due to the losses at Crete that had not yet been made good; by 1942 when they had the numbers they were able to keep the momentum going by shuttling supplies forward.

Also the US did use its transport fleet to keep supplies moving in the Pacific:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Douglas_C-47_Skytrain#Operational_history

Plus the C-47 was the primary means of keeping West Berlin supplied in 1948, flying supplies over the 'Hump', and transporting between Britain and the continent in 1944-45.


**Edit:
turns out I was partly wrong, the Ju52 was ferrying supplies forward during Barbarossa, not just at Demyansk:
http://books.google.com/books?id=9J...F4Q6AEwDA#v=onepage&q=ju52 barbarossa&f=false

http://books.google.com/books/id=OR...GgQ6AEwDw#v=onepage&q=ju52 barbarossa&f=false
 
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Realist01

Banned
In sum: the Germans are even more fucked IOTL. They may be able to mount a better defense against the inevitable winter offensive, but are likely still pushed back (if not as much) with large casualties (if not as much). They'll likely try and mount another offensive in '42, either against Leningrad, Moscow, or the Donbass but these likely do not make anything like the progress of IOTL '42. From late-42 on, the Soviets will steamroll the Germans. Berlin falls by mid/late-44.

Frankly it allways amazes me how some people in an alternate history forum allways (want to) arrive at the same conclusion - refusing to even admit that other outcomes were possible - especially with regard to a German victory in WW2.

You claim that without the Western Allies the USSR would have defeated Germany between 6 and 12 months faster had it just been prepared in June 1941. This claim is nothing more then a giant Soviet wank

1. You are assuming that the Soviets beeing better prepared would have made a big difference - considering the state of the Red Army and the obsolete equipment they had this claim is at least doubtfull

2. Even if the Soviets loose half of the equipment they lost OTL in 1941 - they are not better off - obsolete BT and T-26 tanks and the obsolete Yak Lag and Mig fighters would have played a minor role in 1942.

3. With the Germans advancing less it means the Soviet counteroffensive in 1941 is repelled more easily. Also if the Germans do not manage to get as far as the Caucasus there is no Stalingrad - because the German supply lines would not be stretched to the limit. Meaning no loss of hundreds of aircraft and tanks and well over 300 000 men - also no great Red Army victory to boost Soviet morale

4. So in mid 1943 the germans would have occupied roughly the same territory they occupied OTL at this time - This is your assertion BTW - mine would be that additional resources would have allowed them to hold their November 42 frontline

5. The western allies kept away from the easter front from 41-43:

5000 tanks
20 000 aircraft - 25 000 if counted the losses from July 1940 to June 1941 sustained against the British
25 000 Trucks
50 000 Guns
500 000 Soldiers

While LL during this time period delivered 8000 tanks, 12 000 aircraft and 200 000 Trucks and Jeeps and millions of tons of food, fuel, resources ect ect

6. With an even 1 on 1 match Germany would have beaten the USSR - or would have been at the very least able to stop the Soviet advance in 1943 - to deny that these additional resources would have made any difference and to suggest that without American and British involvement the USSR would have won the war even faster then OTL is nothing more then the advocation of determinism - something which should have no room in an alternate history forum.
 
Even without war, Germany would have a difficult to impossible time building up its war machine through trade. Throughout the entire 1939-1945 period the Reichsbank had much less than 1 billion Reichsmark (~5 billion 2014 USD) in foreign exchange reserves. That was insufficient to maintain food stocks and essential consumer imports, much less buy metal ores and oil for war production. They couldn't borrow from international markets since their credit rating was nonexistent, they couldn't simply use their own currency since it wasn't a universal reserve currency, and there was no chance in hell they would receive lend-lease.
 

Deleted member 1487

Even without war, Germany would have a difficult to impossible time building up its war machine through trade. Throughout the entire 1939-1945 period the Reichsbank had much less than 1 billion Reichsmark (~5 billion 2014 USD) in foreign exchange reserves. That was insufficient to maintain food stocks and essential consumer imports, much less buy metal ores and oil for war production. They couldn't borrow from international markets since their credit rating was nonexistent, they couldn't simply use their own currency since it wasn't a universal reserve currency, and there was no chance in hell they would receive lend-lease.

How much had they looted from the rest of Europe? It was more than just gold reserves, such as jewelry, silver, and anything of barter value (stocks and bonds for instance) that were used to buy via proxies in Spain and Switzerland. Plus they had counterfeited the British Pound by 1943:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Operation_Bernhard

What the Reichsbank end in reserve was meaningless to what the Nazis had on hand to sell off once conquering a looting Europe, plus getting access to reparations money once governments in exile cut deals when Britain exits the war. Most did not have the will to go to the US other than the ones with no choice like Poland the Czechoslovakia. Norway, Belgium, and the Netherlands were going to cut deals with the Nazis if Britain exited the war and Belgium as of 1940 had several hundred million dollars in gold in US banks that the Nazis could get, plus whatever the Franco-Belgian-Dutch empires could furnish; Belgian Congo and the DEI had a lots of raw materials to send to Germany in lieu of cash. France too had raw materials from its empire it could pay. Even without cash Germany has access to a lot of its pre-war barter trade that had been cut off by the blockade, so could resume that with South America once the blockade is over, plus it could sell war bonds to German expat communities abroad (not all supported the Nazis, but significant numbers did) if it really wanted.
 
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