Largest Possible Number of Germanic Languages?

What about just having the Dutch and Swedish colonies do better enough that they aren't absorbed into the general American population. Throw in a German Speaking colony. There would be rapid linquistic change with those
languages. That would give you at lest 2-3 new languages.
 

Delvestius

Banned
I dunno why everyone's assuming that if Germany or the Netherlands colonized more, then different languages would magically pop up... Aside from Afrikaans and a few creoles, there isn't really any good examples of colonial variants of languages evolving into anything more than a separate dialect... Same goes for former French and Spanish colonies, as well as English ones... I was on a plane sitting next to a couple from Ghana speaking a completely foreign language, and I asked them what it was. They told me it was English. Heavily influenced English, but English nonetheless, I can believe it.
 
It helps to have separation. Either physicial of cultural. American English was well on the way to becoming a different language from British before WW1.
Many colonies are settled by people speaking a nonstandard form of the national language and often the colonials miss out on some of the language changes at home. They often have their own changes which do not make it home.
Another way is to have different Ethinic Groups who speak the same language go out of there way to make their dialect as different from the others as possible. Look at Hindi and Urdu or for a current example look at
Bosnian, Croat and Serbian.
 

Delvestius

Banned
It helps to have separation. Either physicial of cultural. American English was well on the way to becoming a different language from British before WW1.
Many colonies are settled by people speaking a nonstandard form of the national language and often the colonials miss out on some of the language changes at home. They often have their own changes which do not make it home.

Well yeh, but as I said, with the entire world colonized by four or five countries, we still only have one example of a separate "colonial" language actually forming. But again, linguistic classification is, at the end of the day, political. Afrikaans is closer to Dutch than Moroccan Arabic is to Modern Standard Arabic, though the former is considered a separate language, while the latter is not, merely out of political purposes.

Another way is to have different Ethinic Groups who speak the same language go out of there way to make their dialect as different from the others as possible. Look at Hindi and Urdu or for a current example look at
Bosnian, Croat and Serbian.

They didn't so much "go out of their way" to do it, rather your examples are all based in languages that have multiple orthographic systems, which formed the basis of divergence. Urdu is Hindi written through the Arabic script (but it also has a great deal of loan words from Arabic and Farsi, thanks to geography and shared religion), while the Serb/Croat languages are written with the Cyrillic/Roman alphabets respectively (Bosnian is this weirdo free-for-all language that has been written in Cyrillic, Roman script and Arabic script at different parts in their history, while the nobility primarily used Arabic or Turkish speech.)

A cool fact as to why Spanish and Portuguese are different is that the areas that speak Spanish today retained more of the "Moz-Arabic", or Middle-Spanish written through the Arabic script and also kept some grammatical influences, while Portuguese retained less and is more alike to French and Occitan in grammar and phonetics, if not vocabulary.
 
No. Austro-Bavarian and Allemanic are Upper German, High Franconian in the Transitionnal area and Central German further north. Low German is what comes from the Old Saxon. With a disunited germany you could easily got 2 or 3 different germanic languages in it.

But by then, standard literary German was already on the scene. It predated German nationalism. You would indeed need an earlier PoD than the 17th century.
 

Delvestius

Banned
Weren't they different Roman provinces?

Nope, the Yugoslav countries of today are all located in what was the Roman province of Illyria. Besides which, the Roman Empire was waaaay before the Slavic migration into the Balkans. The Illyrians had their own language (pretty sure it was an Indo-European isolate), with the Slavs not settling into the region until the latter half of the first millennium A.D, the first of which being the Bulgars.

EDIT: If you were referring to Spain/Portugal, then kinda. Hispania was the province of the Iberian peninsula, with much of modern day Portugal being a part of the sub-province of Lusitania. However this had little effect on the development of Portuguese as a separate language, especially after the Visigoths swept in. It was primarily the Moorish influences that caused the languages to diverge.
 
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