I guarantee there are no "rules" of the post-1900 forum which state you have to focus on one "implausible" aspect of a scenario which a person simply intends to use as background. If you just can't stand a premise of someone's TL, feel free to find another thread to post in.
Furthermore, and not to be tiresome or punctilious, but his reasons for establishing so radically that my PoDs are not "plausible" are based on an exercise in presentism that ignores the psychological and social context of the time in which we speak.
That Nazi Germany was doomed purely by statistics is something we know today and thanks precisely to the research work of historians. But at the time it was something that the contenders could not know, not even the high echelons of the opposing powers.
As you yourself can see in an essay that I have passed, the social majority in Great Britain in the summer of 1940 considered the war lost and if they resisted it was solely and exclusively due to both the help of the United States (which in this story would be much smaller or even non-existent when having an isolationist government) as well as the obstinacy of Churchill's government (which would not be in power in this TL).
Furthermore, Churchill's absence would also cause the Battle of Britain to have a different result, given that it was his decision that changed the fate of that battle: On the night of August 24 to 25, 1940, during a bombing attempt on Thames oil terminals, the East End of London was bombed by mistake despite Hitler's express prohibition against attacking civilian targets (again, further evidence of Hitler's Anglophilia which would have helped his peace intentions).
In retaliation, Churchill ordered the RAF to attempt to attack Tempelhof airport and the Siemens factory the following night, although the bombs caused only slight damage to residential neighborhoods and the outskirts of Berlin. They continued their attacks on other German cities, such as Leipzig and Hanover, and even the Italian cities of Turin and Milan, but Churchill insisted that the main objective must remain Berlin.
Although the damage in the British bombing of Berlin was practically negligible (at least compared to the serious damage caused by the Luftwaffe on British soil), Churchill got what he wanted. Hitler, wounded in his pride, ordered the Luftwaffe to abandon the strategy of bombing British airfields to concentrate on the cities; mainly about London. And that ultimately caused the RAF to recover and the Battle of Britain to end in a British "victory."
In my Tl, where Churchill died in 1931 (it was previously in 1939, but thanks to a correction by
@Cryhavoc101, I have established that it was in that year, when he was run over in New York), by not giving that order, the strategy of the Luftwaffe focuses solely on military objectives that leave the RAF without the capacity to respond and making the British fear a possibility of invasion (which in reality we know today was not going to happen because the Germans had no capacity for it, but the British back then they don't know that).
Given this panorama, I do not see why they would not accept a peace (even if they intend it to be temporary) with Germany in the face of their generous offers to them (logically, I am not talking about the fate that some of Britain's allies would suffer, (but it is not the first time that Great Britain has turned its back on its allies).
Thanks for answering.