I think this is the particular battle that you are looking for in regard to the Portuguese.
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Alcácer_Quibir
Columbus doesnt sail the ocean blue, so Spain conquers Egypt and something that rhymes with blue
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https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Alcácer_Quibir
Contact with fishermen or others? It is believed by some historians that John Cabot got his knowledge of Newfoundland from old fishermen's stories of that far land, as well as residual contact with Greenland/Iceland--it wouldn't surprise me if Portugal had similar knowledge.
I always figured that Columbus had heard rumors of land across the Atlantic but also knew it had taken Marco Polo almost 3 years to get to China via the silk road. Not realizing how slow the travelling was he calculated the distance by land using the average distance a rider could travel in European conditions (relatively trouble free open roads) which when subtracted from the know circumference at the tropic of Cancer meant the land on the other side of the ocean had to be China and a lot quicker to reach.
Timbuktu rhymes with blue and would have been rich pickings at the time as well as being next to impossible to conquer.
Timbuktu rhymes with blue and would have been rich pickings at the time as well as being next to impossible to conquer.
Would it have been possible for the late Kalmar Union to eventually rediscover Vinland and try to evacuate the people of the Failing Greenland Colony there?
How late? If I recall correctly, by 1523 they were dissolved with Sweden going out on their own.
Why would it necessarily need to be the Kalmar Union and not Denmark-Norway? Even Norway could end up having a vested interest in North America (Newfoundland, at least) since their economy was so heavily based on fishing.
But I'm pretty sure Greenland was basically dead by the late 15th century.
Regardless of Cabral, there's Binot Paulmier de Gonneville, who managed to discover yet another part of Brazil while thinking he found Madagascar.
Well make it earlier than that or something,what I'm thinking is the New Sweden OTL colonies but a few hundred years earlier, with some Scandinavian power being able to essentially have the Thirteen Colonies plus Canada within their hold.
Maybe whatever Scandinavian country that does this can make a trade deal With Britain/France/ whatever Caribbean power that if they cheaply sell sugar to them they will sell cheap cotton/whatever plantation goods the American south has
How would any of that help the Spanish conquer the Burji? Especially since it is possible that the Ottomans ally them as they did against the Portuguese. This may actually work to the Burji's advantage to get into a protracted conflict with the Spanish as the Ottomans ally them against the Christian threat and then against the Safavids and the Burji end up creating a sort of hegemony over North Africa to Tunis.
EDIT: or this could just lead to the conquest of Burji territory as the Portugese conflict did otl. Which is completely annexed by the Ottomans.
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In fact for the conquest it will not help much. I was thinking for after the landing of troops and the conquest and pacification.
To hold egypt and levant the greatest adversary is the Ottoman Empire, so to defend it the spanish need: A lot of experience in conflicts with the ottoman war machine, maritime supremacy, modern fortifications, and the most important excellent relationship with the muslim elites and the local population.
Napoleonrules
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Based on a couple posts stating- Timbuktu, as something that rhymes with blue; and the fact that many have pointed out that Ottoman Egypt is possibly too strong for Spain in a non-New World ATL how about this instead- Could Spain, seeing Portugal's dominance along the coast of Africa and trade routes to India decide to use Ceuta and other North African posts to push into Morocco and down to the Niger River? Several Muslim dynasties, Almohads, Almoravids, etc had extensive routes to Mali/Songhai and that area. Could Spain go looking for gold and trade goods and get rich from the Sahara/Sahel areas and then use that money in a similar, though smaller, way in Europe? And by extension if the Spanish/Portuguese personal union under Charles still occurs, could the divorce see Spain keep Portugal's West Africa coast and we see Spain monopolize West Africa with the Portuguese having Africa south of, say... Cameroon? A Treaty of Tordesillas that goes horizontally across the globe instead of vertically?
There are reports some Icelanders sailed over to Vinland and Greenland to harvest timber and occasionally trade into the 1450s iirc. So some middle aged Newfoundland natives seeing Cabot arrive in the 1490s would have figured it was just those weird pale people showing up after a long break, not anyone 'discovering' anything.
Yeah, wasn't that one of the reasons why the Beothuk were so avoidant and paranoid about Europeans, since they periodically showed up to get timber (and possibly to take slaves or otherwise mess with them)? That might explain why their reaction to Europeans was different compared to other peoples in that region.
it's kinda hard to use a slave when their is a huuge language barrier
We know it happened since some Icelanders have Beothuk genes. And it isn't that hard anyway, since it isn't like African slaves magically knew English or whatever.
Wow Really? Not doubting you but a source would be pretty nice.
Thats because they had some slaves that knew African and English that acted as translators, in Iceland I doubt you're going to have large plantations that will need to facilitate such a large amount of slaves.
Few things:
- There's a theory, based on the itinerary of Vasco de Gama (wildly different from Dias'), orders for provisions and a few other things that there were secret voyages by the Portuguese after Bartolomé Dias in 1488. There's even reports from Arabic traders from Sofala in 1495 saying they saw European ships nearby.
- Egypt could have been maybe a target if the Crusade of 1455 got going. The Pope called for one after the fall of Constantinople, the Portuguese assembled an army but nobody else followed.
- Colombus got it wrong, possibly because of a mistranslation between Arabic and European/Roman miles. He also thought Japan (Cipangu) was waaay closer than he thought.
All I have is Wikipedia, but the article cites its source.
And there's nothing stopping the Beothuk from learning Icelandic or another Norse language, of course. But clearly the distance, small population density, effort involved, and the fact the Icelanders/Greenlanders weren't there for slaves means that Indian slavery in Iceland would be inherently limited. Not to mention that as you say, there are no plantations, cash crops, etc. to be farmed, and European diseases would kill your slave pretty fast, meaning them leaving offspring would be unlikely. Seems to be another case of where more probably happened then we are able to find evidence of, simply because the evidence has either vanished or can't be known, meaning we can only speculate (and that's never what any serious historian wants).