AHC:Union Between England and Austria

Inspired by previous threads, how can a union be created between England and Austria, probably personal?Go ahead!
 
The 1522 betrothal of Princess Mary of England (later Queen Mary I) to Emperor Charles V isn't broken off, they eventually have sons, and any sons Henry VIII has ITTL still die without issue.
 
The 1522 betrothal of Princess Mary of England (later Queen Mary I) to Emperor Charles V isn't broken off, they eventually have sons, and any sons Henry VIII has ITTL still die without issue.

There is this slight issue, that the brother of Charles V, Ferdinand got the Austrian Hereditary Lands in the division of the inheritance. Well at least in those parts there was tradition that brothers divided the inheritance, in fact originally Charles was entitled to a part of the Austrian Hereditary Lands; and Ferdinand would not have objected, if the entire inheritance would have been divided that way, but in those parts usually the oldest son inherited. In the end Charles gave him his Austrian share, but not anything more, in part, because governing these together also was more efficient.
Once this was settled they were very loyal to each other, until about the time their heirs were adults and they had their inheritances in mind.

However alternatively Charles V also was considered as an option for the aunt of OTL Queen Mary Tudor, Henry VIII's sister Mary Tudor. IMHO she would be a better candidate, if only because she was a bit older (almost 4 years) than Charles, but she could (potentially) provide him with a heir, without having to wait almost a decade, which just is too long for a monarch to afford to wait.
 
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Interesting. I'd thought the division only happened upon Charles's death, but I just looked it up and it seems you're mostly right: Ferdinand ruled the Austrian Hereditary Lands in Charles's name from 1521 until Charles's abdication in 1556, and then in his own right after that.
 
Oh a Partitioning we shall go!

You could probably switch the Austrian and Spanish Branches relatively easy. Charles V was born in the Netherlands. It would not be inconceivable for him to want to keep his court at Brussels so as to stay close to his Wife's court and stay in his home town. In that case, it is easier to rule Austria from Brussels than it is to rule Spain from Brussels, so Spain may be given to Ferdinand.

Thinking about it, this also provides options if one wanted to keep the Hapsburgs from being wanked to crap in this Time Line. Have Ferdinand made King of Spain, but have the Spanish not take to him and rebel, eventually selecting their own Domestic Candidate. Perhaps Charles starts as King of Spain, but then tries to give it to his Brother, which is regarded as a diplomatic slight by the Spanish Estates.

There would likely be a major Rebellion which would pull France in, as they would be looking at a potential Austrian-Spanish-English union as literally the worst possible thing ever in the history of ever. How the Spanish Empire gets divided up could be interesting.

Alternatively or possibly additionally, without a Hapsburg Ruler ruling from Vienna, then after the Battle of Mohács or whatever its equivalent is in this time line, you may see Hungary prefer to elect the King of Poland, who is much closer to them and thus would likely be more interested in them.

Depending on how rival claimants go, you could see a Hungary split North-South versus our Time Lines East-West.

Bohemia may still go to the Hapsburgs since, you know, Emperor. An Austria-England-Netherlands-Bohemia union is going to get interesting come the Reformation...
 
@JCVocke: switching the Austrian and Spanish branches has been discussed here before, but probably isn't that easy. First of all the Spanish inheritance as a whole was more valuable, especially since kingdoms like Hungary (-Croatia) and Bohemia only were inherited at a later point by Ferdinand of Habsburg, because he had married the heiress of these kingdoms.

IOTL Ferdinand of Aragon toyed with the idea of making Ferdinand of Habsburg his heir. Alternatively the Spanish Estates could force Charles to make his brother Ferdinand, who was raised in Spain, his heir there. In such a scenario Charles would definitely have kept the rest (Austria-Burgundy) of the inheritance for his branch and any potential later addition, like the duchy of Milan, would stay with the branch of Charles. However this will also affect the 'marriage game', now Anne of Bohemia & Hungary would be a much more attractive marriage candidate for Charles, especially since ITTL he is the one fully focusing on the empire.

Also though caused by dynastic randomness the house of Habsburg was the legitimate heir to Castille-Aragon and Hungary-Bohemia. Charles as the eldest son and grandson inherited Castille and Aragon; IOTL Ferdinand was elected in Bohemia & Hungary, because of was married to, Anne of Bohemia and Hungary, the sister of Louis II. In other words Ferdinand had the strongest claim 'in right of his wife', but also because the houses of Jagiellon (another branch ruled in Poland-Lithuania) and Habsburg had agreed on a treaty, which allowed the possible inheritance of Hungary & Bohemia, at that point ruled by a Jagiellon, by a member of the house of Habsburg. When Vladislaus II of Hungary and Bohemia got a son (later Louis II) and a duaghter (Anna), the treaty was renewed, but now with a Jagiellon (Hungarian-Bohemian branch) and Habsburg double marriage.
Ferdinand of Habsburg receiving the Austrian Hereditary Lands was also done to further his candidacy, since that would be an additional power base, desired by the Hungarian and Bohemian Estates, for the struggle against the Ottoman threat.
 
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