Tl;dr: What changes in Spain’s history would need to take place before 1492 as well as what changes in its style of colonization in order for its colonies to be set up for success similar to Britain’s settler colonies
I would like to make a distinction at the beginning of this scenario between the 100% extraction based colonies in the Caribbean and colonies based in the mainland of the americas. I distinguish between these two categories because I believe that every colony that is purely based on extraction will end up economically disadvantaged as a result, no matter which country colonized it initially.
With that out of the way, onto my main scenario:
My desired outcome is a Latin America that reaches a similar level of potential that the United States and Canada reached in their histories.
This is not a new topic of discussion but I seek to dig a bit deeper:
Usually when this is talked about the discussion centers around the reasons why Latin America is poorer and more unstable than British settler colonies such as the US, Canada, Australia, and New Zealand. The reasons for this vary depending on who you ask and are still up for debate, but some of the reasons commonly given include:
Essentially the issues are that Spanish (and Portuguese since Brazil is part of Latin America and most of these apply to it as well) treated their colonies with a short term mindset that set these countries up for failure once they became independent, and one that that also meant that Spain didn’t have much going for itself once it lot its colonies.
I don’t think Latin America was destined to be poor and unstable, but it’s clear a few things would have to change in history for it to have turned out differently.
The reasons listed above are largely the result of Spain's own attitudes it held when it initially conquered these areas and set up societies in its own image. What would it have taken in Spain's history to have developed a society at home which was conducive to successful settler colonies? An earlier Reconquista? A more powerful merchant class? Most likely POD? Are there any faulty premises of mine? Even if you think that Latin America would have always ended up poorer than the US and Canada, surely there is still a timeline where it ends up better off than where it is today.
I would like to make a distinction at the beginning of this scenario between the 100% extraction based colonies in the Caribbean and colonies based in the mainland of the americas. I distinguish between these two categories because I believe that every colony that is purely based on extraction will end up economically disadvantaged as a result, no matter which country colonized it initially.
With that out of the way, onto my main scenario:
My desired outcome is a Latin America that reaches a similar level of potential that the United States and Canada reached in their histories.
This is not a new topic of discussion but I seek to dig a bit deeper:
Usually when this is talked about the discussion centers around the reasons why Latin America is poorer and more unstable than British settler colonies such as the US, Canada, Australia, and New Zealand. The reasons for this vary depending on who you ask and are still up for debate, but some of the reasons commonly given include:
- The Spanish essentially created a replica of the feudal system in the New World with the establishment of the encomienda system, and this in turn created a wealthy elite in Latin American society which was the base of economic and political power, rather than a more egalitarian society of small landowners as in the American north
- No existing democratic institutions upon independence whereas British colonies had their own forms of limited democracy such as the House of Burgesses in Virginia and other local councils
- A mercantilist trade policy that forbade each colony from trading with each other let alone with foreign countries, only being allowed to do business with spain directly, thus keeping their economies stuck in the primary sector
- Less settlers sent from Europe, with Spain being picky about who they sent over, compared to the British who had the opposite mindset
- Little encouragement of education or development of any kind, with examples such as the expulsion of the Jesuits
Essentially the issues are that Spanish (and Portuguese since Brazil is part of Latin America and most of these apply to it as well) treated their colonies with a short term mindset that set these countries up for failure once they became independent, and one that that also meant that Spain didn’t have much going for itself once it lot its colonies.
I don’t think Latin America was destined to be poor and unstable, but it’s clear a few things would have to change in history for it to have turned out differently.
The reasons listed above are largely the result of Spain's own attitudes it held when it initially conquered these areas and set up societies in its own image. What would it have taken in Spain's history to have developed a society at home which was conducive to successful settler colonies? An earlier Reconquista? A more powerful merchant class? Most likely POD? Are there any faulty premises of mine? Even if you think that Latin America would have always ended up poorer than the US and Canada, surely there is still a timeline where it ends up better off than where it is today.