If we assume the common thesis of French demographic decline being caused by changes to inheritance laws with the Revolution, then metroplitan France could have had a population twice the size by the 1950s.
In our timeline, there were about 1.5 million Pied Noir in North Africa at the point of independence. If we also assume France still takes North Africa, it seems that with a French population tens of millions higher, this could easily be several million higher, perhaps reaching 30%, 40% or even 50% of the population.
Doesn't this mean that France not only can hang on to its Maghreb territories, it is likely to do so?
In our timeline, there were about 1.5 million Pied Noir in North Africa at the point of independence. If we also assume France still takes North Africa, it seems that with a French population tens of millions higher, this could easily be several million higher, perhaps reaching 30%, 40% or even 50% of the population.
Doesn't this mean that France not only can hang on to its Maghreb territories, it is likely to do so?