I've heard some people argue that it might not have, due to the fact that some parts, including the Declaration of the Rights of the Man, were directly inspired by the American Revolution.
On the other hand, the Enlightenment still occurred, and the debt that Louis XVI attained did not come entirely from the American Revolution. Also, the people possibly would not want to live under an absolute monarchy.
I'm just wondering, what do you think?
On the other hand, the Enlightenment still occurred, and the debt that Louis XVI attained did not come entirely from the American Revolution. Also, the people possibly would not want to live under an absolute monarchy.
I'm just wondering, what do you think?
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