This may seem kind of broad, but WI the majority of the native peoples of North and South America had managed to develop written languages prior to the arrival of Europeans? Would relations between them and Europeans/descendants of Europeans have been better? Say the NA's prior to 1492 have flourishing written languages, the same way that Europe and Asia did. And why didn't they? IIRC even the more advanced civilizations like the Maya and Aztecs and Incas didn't have writing. Would they have been able to understand and relate to each other and to the Europeans better?