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Assume that the Roman Republic continues in a relatively recognizably Republican form into the 2nd-3rd centuries AD (yes, that is incredibly vague, I know). Assume also that the territory encompassed in the Republic is comparable to the Roman Empire at that time, and that it has been roughly as territorially stable as the Empire was (yes, huge leap there, I know).

Under those circumstances, would the Republic ever consider something so drastic as expanding citizenship to all freeborn men within Roman territory?
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