What the title says. This is one of the most hotly debated issues I've personally come across in historical debates. Basically, the argument generally goes that had the Roman Empire not broken into two halves and the Western half hadn't fallen (many adding a lack of conversion to Christianity as well), the Roman Empire would have started the Industrial Revolution early on like England did in the 18th century.
To be more specific, assume the basic conditions:
-No 3rd century crisis
-No splitting of the empire
-No conversion to Christianity
So, is there an Industrial Revolution or not?
Edit: The Roman Empire has only the early Middle Ages (3rd to 10th centuries) to industrialise.